Related provisions for BIPRU 8.5.10

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SUP 6.4.16GRP

Types of reports. See SUP 6.4.15 G

Category of firm

Type of report

a bank or building society

• an audited balance sheet which confirms that, in the auditor's opinion, the firm has no remaining deposit liabilities to customers;

• a report from auditors or reporting accountants;

a securities and futures firm

• a report from auditors or reporting accountants

an insurer

• an audited closing balance sheet which demonstrates that the firm has no insurance liabilities to policyholders;

• a report from the auditors or reporting accountants; and

• in some cases, an actuarial opinion as to the likelihood of any remaining liabilities to policyholders.

COLL 6.12.3BGRP
(1) 5In addition, an authorised fund manager 6 subject to COLL 6.12.3R(2) should submit a notification to the FCA if there has been a significant change to the fund’s risk profile since its last report, by sending the form in COLL 6 Annex 2R, completed as applicable, to fundsupervision@fca.org.uk.(2) A significant change to the fund’s risk profile could include, but is not limited to:(a) the first use of derivatives for investment purposes, if derivatives have previously been
COBS 4.13.1RRP
(1) 1This section applies to a firm in relation to a communication to a client, including an excluded communication, that is a marketing communication within the meaning of the UCITS Directive.(2) This section does not apply to:(a) image advertising; or(b) the instrument constituting the fund2, the prospectus, the key investor information3 or the periodic reports and accounts of a UCITS scheme4.2[Note: recital (58) of the UCITS Directive]
CREDS 10.1.3GRP

Module

Relevance to Credit Unions

The Principles for Businesses (PRIN)

The Principles for Businesses (PRIN) set out 3high-level requirements 3imposed by the FCA3. They provide a general statement of regulatory requirements. The Principles apply to all12credit unions. In applying the Principles to credit unions, the FCA3 will be mindful of proportionality. In practice, the implications are likely to vary according to the size and complexity 3of the credit union.

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Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls (SYSC)

SYSC 1,3SYSC 4 to 10 and SYSC 213 apply to all credit unions in respect of the carrying on of their regulated activities and unregulated activities in a prudential context. SYSC 22 (Regulatory references),11SYSC 23 (Senior managers and certification regime: Introduction and classification), SYSC 24 (Senior managers and certification regime: Allocation of prescribed responsibilities), SYSC 25 (Senior managers and certification regime: Management responsibilities maps and handover procedures and material), SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility), SYSC 27 (Senior managers and certification regime: Certification regime)7 and SYSC 18 (Whistleblowing)11 apply to all credit unions in respect of both their regulated activities and their unregulated activities. SYSC 19F.2 (IDD remuneration incentives) and SYSC 28 (Insurance distribution: specific knowledge, ability and good repute requirements) also apply to credit unions when carrying out insurance distribution activities.11

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3Code of Conduct (COCON)

This contains rules and guidance that are directly applicable to a credit union’sSMF managers, certification employees and (from 2017) other conduct rules staff. There is also guidance for credit unions on giving their staff training about COCON.

Threshold Conditions (COND)

In order to become authorised under the Act all firms must meet the threshold conditions. The threshold conditions must be met on a continuing basis by credit unions. Failure to meet one of the conditions is sufficient grounds for the exercise by the FCA3 of its powers.

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The Fit and Proper test for Employees and Senior Personnel7 (FIT)

The purpose of FIT is to set out and describe the criteria that a firm should3 consider when assessing the fitness and propriety of a person (1)3 in respect of whom an application is being made for approval to undertake a controlled function under the senior managers7 regime, (2)3 who has already been approved, (3) who is a certification employee or (4) whom a firm is considering appointing to be a certification employee3.

It also sets out and describes criteria that the FCA will consider when assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate for a controlled function position and that it may consider when assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of approved persons.3

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General Provisions (GEN)

GEN contains rules and guidance on general matters, including interpreting the Handbook, statutory status disclosure, the FCA's3 logo and insurance against financial penalties.

12

Fees manual (FEES)

This manual sets out the fees applying to credit unions.

3Prudential sourcebook for Mortgage and Home Finance Firms, and Insurance Intermediaries (MIPRU)

MIPRU applies to any credit union carrying out insurance distribution activity5 or home finance mediation activity, or using these services. In particular, it sets out requirements for allocation of responsibility for the credit union’sinsurance distribution activity5 (MIPRU 2), for the use of home finance intermediaries or persons doing insurance distribution activity11 (MIPRU 5) and for professional indemnity insurance (MIPRU 3).

Conduct of Business sourcebook (COBS)

A credit union which acts as a CTF provider or provides a cash-deposit ISA will need to be aware of the relevant requirements in COBS. COBS 4.6 (Past, simulated past and future performance), COBS 4.7.1 R (Direct offer financial promotions), COBS 4.10 (Approving and confirming compliance of10 financial promotions), COBS 13 (Preparing product information) and COBS 14 (Providing product information to clients) apply with respect to accepting deposits as set out in those provisions, COBS 4.1 and BCOBS. A credit union that communicates with clients, including in a financial promotion, in relation to the promotion of deferred shares and credit union subordinated debt will need to be aware of the requirements of COBS 4.2 (Fair, clear and not misleading communications) and COBS 4.5 (Communicating with retail clients).4

11A credit union carrying on insurance distribution activities in relation to life policies will also need to be aware of the relevant requirements in COBS. A firm may also elect to comply with COBS in relation to pure protection contracts that otherwise fall under ICOBS (see ICOBS 1 Annex 1 3.1R(1)).

11Credit unions are reminded that they are subject to the requirements of the appropriate legislation, including the Credit Unions Act 1979, relating to activities a credit union may carry on.

3Insurance: Conduct of Business sourcebook (ICOBS)

ICOBS applies to any credit union carrying on non-investment insurance distribution5 activities, such as arranging or advising on general insurance contracts to be taken out by members or where those members gain rights under such a contract (for example, in relation to a group policy)11. ICOBS does not apply to a credit union taking out an insurance policy5 for its own purposes11, such as a policy5 against default by members on their loans where the credit union is the beneficiary of the policy5, since in this circumstance the credit union would not be acting as an insurance intermediary, but would itself be the customer. Credit unions are reminded that they are subject to the requirements of the appropriate legislation, including the Credit Unions Act 1979, relating to activities a credit union may carry on.

3Mortgages and Home Finance: Conduct of Business sourcebook (MCOB)

MCOB applies to any credit union that engages in any home finance activity. MCOB rules cover advising and selling standards, responsible lending (including affordability assessment), charges, and the fair treatment of customers in payment difficulties.

Banking: Conduct of Business sourcebook (BCOBS)

BCOBS sets out rules and guidance for credit unions on how they should conduct their business with their customers. In particular there are rules and guidance relating to communications with banking customers3and financial promotions (BCOBS 2), distance communications (BCOBS 3), information to be communicated to banking customers3(BCOBS 4), post sale requirements (BCOBS 5), and cancellation (BCOBS 6). 3The rules in BCOBS 3.1 that relate to distance contracts may apply 3to a credit union. This is because BCOBS 3 contains requirements which implemented9 the Distance Marketing Directive39where there is "an organised distance sales or service-provision scheme run by the supplier" (Article 2(a)) of the Distance Marketing Directive)9, i.e. if the credit union routinely sells any of its services by post, telephone, fax or the internet3.

11Client Assets (CASS)

CASS 5 (Client money: insurance distribution activity) applies to credit unions carrying on insurance distribution activities where the credit union receives or holds money in the course of or in connection with those activities (i.e. where the application rules set out in CASS 5.1.1R are met). This may vary on a case-by-case basis depending on the firm’s business model.

11Product Intervention and Product Governance sourcebook (PROD)

PROD 1.4 (Product Intervention and Product Governance Sourcebook (PROD)) and PROD 4 (Product governance: IDD and pathway investments) apply to credit unions involved in the manufacture or distribution of insurance products.

Supervision manual (SUP)

The following provisions of SUP are relevant to credit unions: 13SUP 1A13 (The FCA’s 3 approach to supervision), SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA 3 on its own initiative), SUP 3.1 to SUP 3.8 (Auditors), SUP 5 (Reports by skilled11 persons), SUP 6 (Applications to vary and11 cancel Part 4A12permission and to impose, vary or cancel requirements11), SUP 7 (Individual requirements), SUP 8 (Waiver and modification of rules), SUP 9 (Individual guidance), 13SUP 10C (FCA senior managers7 regime for approved persons in SMCR firms7), SUP 11 (Controllers and Close links), SUP 15 (Notifications to the FCA11) and SUP 16 (Reporting Requirements). Where credit unions carry on insurance distribution activities and fall within the category provided at SUP 3.1.2R(10), SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 (Auditors) will also be relevant.11

Credit unions are reminded that they are subject to the requirements of the Act and SUP 11 on close links, and are bound to notify the FCA3 of changes. It may be unlikely, in practice, that credit unions will develop such relationships. It is possible, however, that a person may acquire close links with a 3credit union3 within the meaning of the Act by reason of holding the prescribed proportion of deferred shares in the credit union.

In relation to SUP 16, credit unions are exempted from the requirement to submit annual reports of 3close links.

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11

Decision, Procedure and Penalties manual (DEPP)

DEPP is relevant to credit unions because it sets out:

(1) the FCA's12 decision-making procedure for giving statutory notices. These are warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5); and

(2) the FCA's12 policy with respect to the imposition and amount of penalties under the Act (see DEPP 6).

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Dispute Resolution: Complaints (DISP)

DISP sets out rules and guidance in relation to treating complainants fairly and the Financial Ombudsman Service.

Compensation (COMP)

COMP sets out rules relating to the scheme for compensating consumers when authorised firms are unable, or likely to be unable, to satisfy claims against them.12

11Consumer Credit sourcebook (CONC)

CONC contains rules that apply to firms carrying on credit-related regulated activities. PERG 2.7.19IG provides guidance on relevant exemptions. Where an exemption applies, the credit union lending will be outside the scope of CONC. However, subject to the constraints in the Credit Unions Act 1979 or the Credit Unions (Northern Ireland) Order 1985 (as relevant), credit unions may undertake credit-related regulated activities to which CONC does apply if the activity is carried out by way of business. This could include lending under a borrower-lender-supplier agreement, including entering into conditional sale agreements and/or hire-purchase agreements, or debt adjusting or debt counselling where the credit union is not the lender. A credit union carrying on such activities should consider whether it requires permission to do so. Further information can be found on the FCA’s website.

6General guidance on Benchmark Administration, Contribution and Use (BENCH)

BENCH provides guidance about which parts of the Handbook are relevant to a firm when carrying out benchmark activities and when using a benchmark. It also provides guidance about the benchmarks regulation.

The Enforcement Guide (EG)

The Enforcement Guide (EG) describes the FCA's12 approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by the Act and by other legislation.2

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Financial Crime Guide: A firm’s guide to countering financial crime risks (FCG) and Financial Crime Thematic Reviews (FCTR)8

FCG and FCTR provide8guidance on steps that a firm can take to reduce the risk that it might be used to further financial crime.

RCB 2.3.18GRP
(1) The FCA expects the report from the accountants to address at least the following matters:(a) that the level of over collateralisation meets the limits set out in the covered bond arrangements which are designed to ensure compliance with the requirement that the asset pool is capable of covering claims attaching to the bond in Regulation 17 (requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations; and(b) that appropriate due diligence procedures (which
DISP 2.7.5GRP
If a respondent is in doubt about the eligibility of a business, charity or trust, it should treat the complainant as if it were eligible. If the complaint is referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service, the Ombudsman will determine eligibility by reference to appropriate evidence, such as audited accounts or VAT returns.127
IPRU-INV 4.2.3GRP
Underwriting agents are subject to regulation by the Society as well as by the appropriate regulator. In particular, they are subject to requirements as to their financial resources and as to making and maintaining accounting records, set by the Society. The appropriate regulator is satisfied that underwriting agents will be subject to adequate financial resource and accounting requirements as long as they remain subject to and comply with requirements at least equivalent to Lloyd's
EG 13.9.5RP
1If the FCA believes that the individual is insolvent, the factors it will consider when it decides whether to seek a bankruptcy order or sequestration award include: (1) whether others have taken steps to deal with the individual's insolvency, including a proposal by the individual of a voluntary arrangement, a petition by the individual for his own bankruptcy or sequestration, or a petition by a third party for the individual's bankruptcy or the sequestration of the individual's
SUP 4.5.12GRP
2Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an actuary appointed under or as a result of the Act:(1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanation as he reasonably considers necessary to perform his duties as actuary.
MIPRU 4.2A.6RRP
Unless a rule requires otherwise, the 3exposure value of an asset or liability held on the balance sheet of a firm3must be its balance sheet value.33
COLL 6.6B.17RRP
The depositary must ensure that the cash flows of each UCITS scheme are properly monitored and that:(1) all payments made by, or on behalf of, investors upon the subscription of units of the scheme have been received; (2) all cash of the scheme has been booked in cash accounts which are: (a) opened in the name of:(i) the scheme; or(ii) the authorised fund manager, acting on behalf of the scheme; or(iii) the depositary acting on behalf of the scheme; and(b) at:(i) a central bank;

1The following words or terms throughout IPRU-INV 5 appearing in bold (other than headings and titles) are to have the meanings given to them below if not inconsistent with the subject or context. If a defined term is italicised the definition appearing in the main Handbook Glossary applies.

Term

Meaning

accounting reference date

means:

(a)

the date to which a firm's accounts are prepared in order to comply with the relevant Companies Act legislation. In the case of a firm not subject to Companies Act legislation, the equivalent date selected by the firm; and

(b)

in the case of an OPS firm which is not subject to the relevant Companies Act legislation, the date to which the accounts of the OPS in respect of which the firm acts are prepared.

annual expenditure

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.5.1 (Determination).

category a body

means:

(a)

the government or central bank of a zone a country; or

(b)

EU or Euratom (the European Atomic Energy Community); or

(c)

the government or central bank of any other country, provided the receivable in question is denominated in that country's national currency.

category b body

means:

(a)

the European Investment Bank (EIB) or a multi-lateral development bank; or

(b)

the regional government or local authority of a zone a country; or

(c)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in a zone a country; or

(d)

a recognised clearing house or exchange; or

(e)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in any other country, which applies a financial supervision regime at least equivalent to the Capital Adequacy Directive.

counterparty

means any person with or for whom a firm carries on regulated business or an ancillary activity.

counterparty risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Counterparty risk requirement).

expenditure based requirement

means the requirement calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.9.1R (Expenditure based requirement).

financial resources

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.3R (Financial resources).

financial resources requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.1R (Determination of requirement).

financial resources rules

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.

financial return

means quarterly financial return or monthly financial return as the case may be.

foreign exchange position

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.14.1R (Foreign exchange requirement).

investment

means a designated investment in the main Glossary.

investment business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

investment firm

has the meaning given to investment firm in the main Glossary except that it excludes persons to which MiFID does not apply as a result of articles 2 or 3 of MiFID.

Note: An investment firm is not necessarily a firm for the purposes of the rules.

investment manager

means a person who, acting only on behalf of a customer, either:

(a)

manages an account or portfolio in the exercise of discretion; or

(b)

has accepted responsibility on a continuing basis for advising on the composition of the account or portfolio.

liquid capital

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R (Calculation of own funds and liquid capital).

liquid capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Liquid capital requirement).

non-retail client

means a professional client or an eligible counterparty.

OPS or occupational pension scheme

means any scheme or arrangement which is comprised in one or more instruments or agreements and which has, or is capable of having, effect in relation to one or more descriptions or categories of employment so as to provide benefits, in the form of pensions or otherwise, payable on termination of service, or on death or retirement, to or respect of earners with qualifying service in an employment of any such description or category.

OPS firm

means:

(a)

a firm which:

(i)

carries on OPS activity but not with a view to profit; and

(ii)

is one or more of the following:

(A)

a trustee of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(B)

a company owned by the trustees of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(C)

a company which is:

(I)

an employer in relation to the occupational pension scheme in question in respect of its employees or former employees or their dependants; or

(II)

a company within the group which includes an employer within (I); or

(III)

an administering authority subject to the Local Government Superannuation Regulations 1986; or

(b)

a firm which:

(i)

has satisfied the requirements set out in (a) at any time during the past 12 months; but

(ii)

is no longer able to comply with those requirements because of a change in the control or ownership of the employer referred to in (a)(ii) during that period.

otc derivative

means interest rate and foreign exchange contracts covered by Annex III to the previous version of the Banking Consolidation Directive (i.e. Directive (2000/12/EC) and off balance sheet contracts based on equities which are not traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange or other exchange where they are subject to daily margin requirements, excluding any foreign exchange contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less.

other assets requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.17.1R (Other assets requirement).

own funds

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R and IPRU-INV 5.3.2R, as applicable.

own funds requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.3R and IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Own funds requirement), as applicable.

permitted business

means regulated activity which a firm has permission to carry on.

position risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Position risk requirement).

prescribed subordinated loan agreement

means the subordinated loan agreement prescribed by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of IPRU-INV 5.6.4R.

qualifying capital instrument

means that part of a firm's capital which is a security of indeterminate duration, or other instrument, that fulfils the following conditions:

(a)

it may not be reimbursed on the bearer's initiative or without the prior agreement of the appropriate regulator;

(b)

the debt agreement must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the payment of interest on the debt;

(c)

the lender's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors;

(d)

the documents governing the issue of the securities must provide for debt and unpaid interest to be such as to absorb losses, whilst leaving the firm in a position to continue trading; and

(e)

only fully paid-up amounts shall be taken into account.

qualifying capital item

means that part of a firm's capital which has the following characteristics:

(a)

it is freely available to the firm to cover normal banking or other risks where revenue or capital losses have not yet been identified;

(b)

its existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and

(c)

its amount is determined by the management of the firm and verified by independent auditors, and is made known to, and is monitored by, the FCA.

2

qualifying property

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.1R (Qualifying property and qualifying amount defined).

qualifying subordinated loan

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.6 (Qualifying subordinated loans).

qualifying undertaking

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.3R (Qualifying undertakings).

readily realisable investment

means a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme, a life policy or any marketable investment other than one which is traded on or under the rules of a recognised or designated investment exchange so irregularly or infrequently:

(a)

that it cannot be certain that a price for that investment will be quoted at all times; or

(b)

that it may be difficult to effect transactions at any price which may be quoted.

regulated business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

relevant foreign exchange items

means:

(a)

all assets less liabilities, including accrued interest, denominated in the currency (all investments at market or realisable value);

(b)

any currency future, at the nominal value of the contract;

(c)

any forward contract for the purchase or sale of the currency, at the contract value, including any future exchange of principal associated with currency swaps;

(d)

any foreign currency options at the net delta (or delta-based) equivalent of the total book of such options;

(e)

any non-currency option, at market value;

(f)

any irrevocable guarantee;

(g)

any other off-balance sheet commitment to purchase or sell an asset denominated in that currency.

reporting currency

means the currency in which the firm's books of account are maintained.

specified trustee business

1.

means any investment business carried on in the UK by a trustee firm, but excluding each of the following activities:

(a)

Dealing or arranging deals in investments

(i)

where the deal is transacted or arranged by a trustee firm with or through a PTP; or

(ii)

where the dealing or arranging is done in the course of, or is incidental to, an activity of management falling within paragraph (b) below; or

(iii)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and the deal is or the arrangements are made with a view to either an issue or sale of units in such a scheme to, or a redemption or repurchase or conversion of such units or a dealing in investments for such a scheme carried out by with or through, the operator or on the instructions of the operator; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm, being a bare trustee (or, in Scotland, a nominee) holding investments for another person, is acting on that person's instructions; or

(v)

where any arrangements do not or would not bring about the transaction in question.

(b)

Managing investments

(i)

where the trustee firm has no general authority to effect transactions in investments at discretion; or

(ii)

if and to the extent that all day-to-day decisions in relation to the management of the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken by a PTP; or

(iii)

if and to the extent that investment decisions in relation to the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken substantially in accordance with the advice given by a PTP; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm is a personal representative or executor and is acting in that capacity; or

(v)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and all day-to-day investment decisions in the carrying on of that activity are or are to be taken by the operator of the scheme.

(c)

Investment advice

(i)

where the relevant advice:

(A)

does not recommend the entry into any investment transaction or the exercise of any right conferred by any investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert such an investment; and

(ii)

if and to the extent that the relevant advice is in substance the advice of a PTP; or

(iii)

where the relevant advice is given by the trustee firm acting in the capacity of personal representative or executor.

(d)

Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme including acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust scheme but only to the extent that such activities do not otherwise constitute specified trustee business.

(e)

Any trustee activity undertaken as trustee of an issue of debentures or government or public securities:

(i)

where the issue is made by a company listed on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange (or by a wholly-owned subsidiary of such a company); or

(ii)

where the issue is listed or traded either on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange or on the Société de la Bourse de Luxembourg; or

(iii)

where the issue is made by a government, local authority or international organisation; or

(iv)

where the aggregate amounts issued (pursuant to the trust deed or any deed supplemental thereto and ignoring any amounts redeemed, repurchased or converted) exceed the sum of £10,000,000.

2.

For the purpose of this definition of "specified trustee business":

(a)

a transaction is entered into through a person if that person:

(i)

enters into it as agent; or

(ii)

arranges for it to be entered into as principal or agent by another person and the arrangements are such that they bring about the transaction in question;

(b)

investment transaction means a transaction to purchase, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a particular investment and "investment decision" means a decision relating to an investment transaction;

(c)

debentures means any securities falling within article 77 of the RAO;

(d)

government or public securities means any securities falling within article 78) of the RAO;

(e)

government, local authority or international organisation means:

(i)

the government of the United Kingdom, of Northern Ireland, or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

(ii)

a local authority in the United Kingdom or Anywhere; or

(iii)

an international organisation the members of which include the United Kingdom2.

(f)

in determining the size of an issue of debentures or government or public securities made in a currency other than sterling, the amount of the issue shall be converted into sterling at the exchange rate prevailing in London on the date of issue.

total capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.5R (Total capital requirement).

trading book

in relation to a firm's business or exposures, means:

(a)

its proprietary positions in financial instruments:

(i)

which are held for resale and/or are taken on by the firm with the intention of benefiting in the short term from actual and/or expected differences between their buying and selling prices or from other price or interest-rate variations;

(ii)

arising from matched principal broking;

(iii)

taken in order to hedge other elements of the trading book;

(b)

exposures due to unsettled securities transactions, free deliveries, OTC derivative instruments, repurchase agreements and securities lending transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above, reverse repurchase agreements and securities borrowing transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above; and

(c)

fees, commission, interest and dividends, and margin on exchange-traded derivatives which are directly related to the items included in (a) and (b) above.

trustee activity

means, in relation to a firm, any activity undertaken in the course of or incidental to the exercise of any of its powers, or the performance of any of its duties, when

unit trust manager

means the manager of a unit trust scheme.

zone b country

means a country which is not a Zone A country in the Glossary.

BIPRU 7.9.21GRP
(1) A firm should have a conceptually sound risk management system which is implemented with integrity and should meet the minimum standards set out in this paragraph.(2) A firm should have a risk control unit that is independent of business trading units and reports directly to senior management. The unit should be responsible for designing and implementing the firm's risk management system. It should produce and analyse daily reports on the risks run by the business and on the
SYSC 19D.3.67RRP
(1) Subject to (2) to (7), the rules in SYSC 19D Annex 1.1R to 1.6R apply in relation to the prohibitions on dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff being remunerated in the ways specified in:(a) SYSC 19D.3.44R (guaranteed variable remuneration);(b) SYSC 19D.3.59R (1deferred variable remuneration);(c) SYSC 19D.3.61R(2) (performance adjustment – clawback); and(d) SYSC 19D Annex 1.10R (replacing payments recovered or property transferred).(2) Paragraph (1) applies only to those
SUP 10C.11.24GRP
(1) A statement of responsibilities (including its attachment sheet for additional information) should:(a) be complete by itself;(b) not refer to documents not forming part of it; and(c) only contain material about the matters that this chapter, the corresponding PRA requirements (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6 and the Act say should be included in it.(2) For example, if it is necessary to include relevant material from the firm's report and accounts, the statement
BIPRU 4.2.5GRP
(1) This paragraph provides guidance on BIPRU 4.2.2 R and in particular BIPRU 4.2.2 R (1).(2) The information that a firm produces or uses for the purpose of the IRB approach should be reliable and take proper account of the different users of the information produced (customers, shareholders, regulators and other market participants).(3) A firm should establish quantified and documented targets and standards, against which it should test the accuracy of data used in its rating
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66

31

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application.

66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

(4) [deleted]66

1418013434343434343441

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) [deleted]56

4

(c) [deleted]66

(d) [deleted]66

27
2727

(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R:

66(i) an application for an order declaring a scheme to be recognised under section 271A or section 272 of the Act72;

66(ii) [deleted]74

68

66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68

66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM.

58366666

Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66

36

On or before the date the application or notification66 is made

36

(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66

66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body;

66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges;

66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body;

66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company;

66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations;

66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations;

66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR;

66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10;

(xi) an application for registration71 as a third party verifier;

(xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission70.

27272766

Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

2727

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

28

28(ea) [deleted]66

5656

(eb) [deleted]66

28

(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66

66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;

66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme;

66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond;

66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D;

66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for:

66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or

66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act.

(vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.

Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or62

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256

17781717

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

(ga) [deleted]52

26353535

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) [deleted]66

(o) [deleted]65

112229529782929556782929295557829295782929297829295

[deleted]65

5255512515555157857855256

[deleted]65

278292978292978229

(oa) [deleted]65

2937373737585637373737583737

[deleted]65

37

[deleted]65

37373737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table

26

(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66

(2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66

(2A) [deleted]66

(3) [deleted]66

(3A) [deleted]66

(3B) [deleted]66

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66

66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR;

(ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R;

(3D) [deleted]66

(4) [deleted]66

[deleted]66

3080444130808011178783778378080371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730804111781444444

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137913797722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

66 566

(s) [deleted]66

5
7777375937597777377737 37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66

8

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66.

47

On or before the date the application is made.

(ya) [deleted]66

47
47 47

(z) [deleted]66

47

(za) [deleted]66

47

(zb) [deleted]66

47
5050475050475047474747475050

(zc) [deleted]66

47
474747474747

(zd)

47
47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78
78 91678

(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66.

16

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66

On or before the date the application is made.

(zh) [deleted]66

16

(zi) [deleted]66

1614

(zj) [deleted]66

16
5050

(zk) [deleted]66

16

(zl) [deleted]66

15
18

(zm) [deleted]66

18
4141

(zn) [deleted]66

18
4141 21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

(zs) [deleted]66

3031
31303131

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(zw) [deleted]66

4563634963

(zx) [deleted]66

46
63

(zy) [deleted]66

464956

56

63

(zz) [deleted]66

51

52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.

The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).

On the date the application is made.

(zzb) [deleted]66

52

(zzc) [deleted]66

52

54(zzd) applications for claims management companies

The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66

Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.

On the date the application is made.

(zze) [deleted]66

55

61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.

5,000

Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.

The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.

On the date the application is made.

64(zzh) Permission for

(1) carrying on funeral plan distribution;

(2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or

(3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.

(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below.

(2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be:

(a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2);

(b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3).

(3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be:

(a) £500 for (zzh)(1);

(b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and

(c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).

On or before the application is made.

32Part 2: Primary market fees73

38

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19