Related provisions for PERG 4.3.2

SUP 10A.3.5G01/04/2013

The arrangement must be “in relation to” the carrying on of a regulated activity. Regulated activities are defined in the Glossary by reference to the Regulated Activities Order. This order prescribes the activities which are regulated activities for the purposes of the Act.

PERG 1.2.1G01/04/2013

(1) The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) is the UK legislation under which bodies corporate, partnerships, individuals and unincorporated associations are permitted by the FCA or PRA to carry on various financial activities which are subject to regulation (referred to as regulated activities).(2) The activities which are regulated activities are specified in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (the Regulated Activities

PERG 1.2.3AG06/04/2016

2Except in PERG 2 and PERG 7, where PERG uses the defined term of advising on investments, this term refers only to the regulated activity (in article 53(1) of the Regulated Activities Order) of advising on investments (except P2P agreements) and related text should be read and construed accordingly.

PERG 5.12.9G01/10/2018

Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance distribution activities5 in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply

SUP 12.2.7G08/12/2022

(1) The Appointed Representatives Regulations are made by the Treasury under sections 39(1)18, (1C) and (1E)15 of the Act. These regulations describe, among other things, the business for which an appointed representative may be exempt or to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act may not apply15, which is business which comprises any of:(a) dealing in investments as agent (article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the transaction relates to:26553(i) 26a

PERG 4.7.1G01/07/2005

Article 61(1) of the Regulated Activities Order makes entering into a regulated mortgage contract as lender a regulated activity.

PERG 5.5.1G01/07/2005

Article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in investments as agent) makes dealing in contracts of insurance as agent a regulated activity. The activity is defined in terms of buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting contracts as agent, that is, on behalf of another. Examples include:(1) where an intermediary, by accepting on the insurance undertaking's behalf to provide the insurance, commits an insurance undertaking to provide insurance for a prospective policyholder;

PERG 7.2.1G23/02/2018

Advice is excluded by article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order from the regulated activities of advising on investments, advising on regulated credit agreements for the acquisition of land2,3advising on a home finance transaction1and advising on conversion or transfer of pension benefits3 if:1(1) the advice is given in a publication or service that is in one of three formats (see PERG 7.4.3 G and PERG 7.4.4 G); and(2) the principal purpose of the particular format is neither

PERG 7.2.2G23/02/2018

If a person would, but for the exclusion, be carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments, advising on regulated credit agreements for the acquisition of land,3advising on a home finance transaction or advising on conversion or transfer of pension benefits3, or any or each of them1, and will be doing so as a business in the United Kingdom (see PERG 7.3), he may wish to apply to the FCA for a certificate that the exclusion applies (see PERG 7.6). However, a person

PERG 5.9.1G01/04/2013

Under article 64 of the Regulated Activities Order (Agreeing to carry on specified kinds of activity), in addition to the regulated activities of:(1) dealing in investments as agent;(2) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments;(3) making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments;(4) assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance; and(5) advising on investments;agreeing to do any of these things is itself a regulated activity. In

PERG 5.9.2G01/10/2018

To the extent that an exclusion applies in relation to a regulated activity, 'agreeing' to carry on an activity within the exclusion will not be a regulated activity. This is the effect of article 4(3) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general). So, for example, a vet can, without carrying on a regulated activity, enter into an agreement with an insurance undertaking to distribute marketing literature provided that the vet can rely on the exclusion in article

SUP 10A.10.6G10/12/2018

The FCA interprets the phrase “dealing with” as including having contact with customers5 and extending beyond “dealing” as used in the phrase “dealing in investments”. “Dealing in” is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe in general terms the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.

PERG 5.7.1G01/04/2019

The regulated activity of assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance (article 39A) relates, in broad terms, to activities carried on by intermediaries after the conclusion of a contract of insurance and for or on behalf of policyholders, in particular in the event of a claim. Loss assessors acting on behalf of policyholders in the event of a claim are, therefore, likely in many cases to be carrying on this regulated activity. By contrast, managing1

SYSC 4.4.6G29/07/2022

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question		Answer
1	Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person 13? 8	Yes. They13 will be performing the limited scope function13. However, the limited scope function does not apply to an EEA SMCR firm (except claims management and funeral plan 16 firms) or an authorised professional firm that is a core SMCR firm.13 13 17 17 17 17 8
2	If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?	If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.
3	What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?	The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The FCA 13 considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.
4	If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?	Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).
5	Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?	Yes.
6	Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?	Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).
7	If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?	Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2. But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1). If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FCA 13 would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate. See also Question 14.
8	If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?	Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).
9	What if a firm does not have a chief executive?	Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3. But if the firm: (1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and (2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division; then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.
10	What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?	A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided. If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to: (1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions; together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)
11	How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas SMCR firm 13 which is not an EEA SMCR firm 13?	The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but: (1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1 2.15R13). (2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility. 13(3) SYSC 4.4 does not apply to such a firm if it does not have a branch in the United Kingdom.
12	How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an EEA SMCR firm other than a claims management or funeral plan 16 firm 13?	(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1). (2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). 15 (3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2). (4) SYSC 4.4 does not apply to an EEA PTV firm if it does not have a branch in the United Kingdom 15. See also Question 1.15 13 13
13	What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?	The FCA 13 envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).
14	What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?	The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code 5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of independent,9 non-executive directors to be responsible (among other things) for overseeing the effectiveness9 of the audit process and the objectivity and independence of the external auditor9. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1). 5
15	[deleted]15	13

PRIN 3.2.1AR31/07/2023

4PRIN (other than Principle 12 and PRIN 2A)12 applies with respect to the carrying on of:(1) regulated activities;(2) activities that constitute dealing in investments as principal, disregarding the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc); 6(3) ancillary activities in relation to designated investment business, home finance activity, regulated funeral plan activity, 11credit-related regulated activity, insurance distribution activity7

SUP 12.4.1AG03/01/2018

1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because:141111(a) 14they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions

CASS 6.1.1-AR01/04/2015

10In applying the custody rules to a small AIFM'sexcluded custody activities, any reference to a firm carrying on the regulated activities of safeguarding and administering investments, safeguarding and administering assets (without arranging) or arranging safeguarding and administration of assets includes those excluded custody activities that would, but for the exclusion in article 72AA of the RAO, amount to whichever of those regulated activities is referred to.

CASS 6.1.1CG01/01/2009

2In accordance with article 42 of the Regulated Activities Order, a firm ("I") will not be arranging safeguarding and administration of assets if it introduces a client to another firm whose permitted activities include the safeguarding and administration of investments, or to an exempt person acting as such, with a view to that other firm or exempt person:(1) providing a safe custody service in the United Kingdom; or(2) arranging for the provision of a safe custody service in

FEES 3.2.7R31/07/2024

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66 31
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application. 66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: 66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or 66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission 66, the fee payable is the higher of: 78 (i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 78 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 78 (4) [deleted]66 1 41 78 1 34 34 34 34 34 34 34 41	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) [deleted]56 4
(c) [deleted]66
(d) [deleted]66 27	27 27
(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R: 66(i) an application for an order declaring a scheme to be recognised under section 271A or section 272 of the Act 72; 66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF; 68 66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68 66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM. 58 36 66 66	Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66 36	On or before the date the application or notification66 is made 36
(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66 66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body; 66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges; 66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body; 66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company; 66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations; 66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations; 66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR; 66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10; 66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier; (xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission 70. 27 27 27	Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 27 27	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 28
28(ea) [deleted]66 56 56
(eb) [deleted]66 28
(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66 66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order; 66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme; 66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond; 66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D; 66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for: 66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or 66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act. (vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.	Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 62 56 17 76 17 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
(ga) [deleted]52 26 35 35 35
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 76 76	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) [deleted]66
(o) [deleted]65 1 1 2 2 29 5 29 76 29 29 5 56 76 29 29 29 5 5 5 76 29 29 5 76 29 29 29 76 29 29 5	[deleted]65 5 2 5 5 5 1 2 5 1 5 5 5 5 1 5 76 5 76 5 5 2 56	[deleted]65 2 76 29 29 76 29 29 76 2 29
(oa) [deleted]65 29 37 37 37 37 58 56 37 37 37 37 58 37 37	[deleted]65 37	[deleted]65 37 37 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26	(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66 (2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66 (2A) [deleted]66 (3) [deleted]66 (3A) [deleted]66 (3B) [deleted]66 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66 66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR; (ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R; (3D) [deleted]66 (4) [deleted]66 [deleted]66 30 78 44 41 30 78 78 1 1 1 76 76 37 76 37 78 78 37 1 1 37 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 37 30 37 37 37 30 37 11 11 37 37 30 37 30 78 41 11 76 1 44 44 44	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 77 13 77 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
(s) [deleted]66 5	75 75 37 59 37 59 75 75 37 75 37	37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66 8	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66. 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(ya) [deleted]66 47	47	47
(z) [deleted]66 47
(za) [deleted]66 47
(zb) [deleted]66 47	50 50 47 50 50 47 50 47 47 47 47 47 50 50
(zc) [deleted]66 47	47 47 47 47 47 47
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]76 76	76	9 16 76
(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66. 16	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66	On or before the date the application is made.
(zh) [deleted]66 16
(zi) [deleted]66 16 14
(zj) [deleted]66 16	50 50
(zk) [deleted]66 16
(zl) [deleted]66 15		18
(zm) [deleted]66 18	41 41
(zn) [deleted]66 18	41 41	21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
76(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
76(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
(zs) [deleted]66 30 31	31 30 31 31
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 78	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 78 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 78 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 78	On or before the application is made.78
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(zw) [deleted]66 45 63 63 49 63
(zx) [deleted]66 46	63
(zy) [deleted]66 46 49 56	56 63
(zz) [deleted]66 51
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.	The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).	On the date the application is made.
(zzb) [deleted]66 52
(zzc) [deleted]66 52
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies	The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66 Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.	On the date the application is made.
(zze) [deleted]66 55
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.	5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.	The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.	On the date the application is made.
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.	(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).	On or before the application is made.
32Part 2: Primary market fees73 38
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation 60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

PERG 5.10.1G01/10/2018

It must be emphasised that activities which concern invitations to renew policies and the subsequent effecting of renewal of policies are likely to fall within insurance distribution activity2. Those considering the need for authorisation or variation of their permissions will wish to consider whether a process of tacit renewal operates: that is, where a policyholder need take no action if they wish to maintain their2 insurance cover by having their2policy 'renewed'. This process

Related provisions for PERG 4.3.2

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32