Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8

261 - 276 of 276 items.

SUP 6.3.3G01/01/2021

In applying for a variation of Part 4A permission,27 a branch of a firm from outside the UK24 should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in the rest of the Handbook.102710

BIPRU 7.2.44R01/01/2021

Table: specific risk position risk adjustments

This table belongs to BIPRU 7.2.43R.

Issuer	Residual maturity	Position risk adjustment
Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom 5 regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or which would receive a 0% risk weight under the standardised approach to credit risk.	Any	0%
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom 5 regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 2 or 3 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or 2 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institution which would qualify for credit quality step 3 under BIPRU 3.4.34 R (Exposures to institutions: Credit assessment based method) or which would do so if it had an original effective maturity of three months or less. (D) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 1, 2 or 32 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (E) Other qualifying debt securities (see BIPRU 7.2.49R) 2	Zero to six months	0.25%
	over 6 and up to and including 24 months	1%
	Over 24 months	1.6%
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom 5 regional governments or local authorities or institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 4 or 5 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 4 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) Exposures for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is not available. 2	Any	8%
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom 5 regional governments or local authorities or institution which would qualify for credit quality step 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporate which would qualify for credit quality step 5 or 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) An instrument that shows a particular risk because of the insufficient solvency of the issuer of liquidity. This paragraph applies even if the instrument would otherwise qualify for a lower position risk adjustment under this table.	Any	12%
Note: The question of what a corporate is and of what category a debt security falls into must be decided under the rules relating to the standardised approach to credit risk.

[Note:CAD Annex I point 14 Table 1]2

SUP 10C.11.27G10/12/2018

(1) An example of the requirement that a5firm'sstatements of responsibilities for its SMF managers should be consistent (see SUP 10C.11.23G) is that they should5 together demonstrate that there are no gaps in the allocation of responsibilities among the firm’s5SMF managers.(2) A firm'sstatements of responsibilities should be interpreted, where possible, so as to avoid any gaps in the allocation of responsibility for its activities among its SMF managers.(3) Paragraphs (1) and

LR App 1.1.127/05/2022

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the listing rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission or admission to listing	admission of securities to the official list .
admission to trading	admission of securities to trading on an RIE's market for listed securities.
advertisement	(as defined in the Prospectus Regulation) a communication with both of the following characteristics:53
	(a)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(b)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.
applicant	an issuer which is applying for admission of securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PR Regulation 53) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable there under; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
associate	(A)36 in relation to a director, substantial shareholder, or person exercising significant influence, who is an individual: 6
	(1)	that individual's spouse , civil partner 2or child (together "the individual's family");
	(2)	the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are related parties;
	(3)	any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able: (a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or (b) to appoint or remove directors 33 holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters;29 33
	29(4)	any partnership whether a limited partnership or limited liability partnership in which the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual’s family are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they hold or control or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be able to hold or control: (a) a voting interest greater than 30% in the partnership; or (b) at least 30% of the partnership.
	For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one director of the listed company, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those directors and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the director.
	(B)36 in relation to a substantial shareholder or person exercising significant influence, which is a company: 6
	(1)	any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;
	(2)	any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the substantial shareholder's or person exercising significant influence's directions or instructions;6 6 6
	(3)	any company in the capital of which the substantial shareholder or person exercising significant influence and any other companyunder paragraph (1) or (2) taken together, is (or would on the fulfilment of a condition or the occurrence of a contingency be) able to exercise power of the type described in paragraph (3)(a) or (b) above of this definition.6
	36(C) when used in the context of a controlling shareholder who is an individual:
	36(1)	that individual's spouse, civil partner or child (together "the individual's family");
	36(2)	the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are controlling shareholders);
	36(3)	any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able: (a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or (b) to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters;
	36(4)	any partnership whether a limited partnership or limited liability partnership in which the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they hold or control or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be able to hold or control: (a) a voting interest greater than 30% in the partnership; or (b) at least 30% of the partnership.
	36For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one controlling shareholder of the listed company, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those controlling shareholders and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the controlling shareholder.
	36(D) when used in the context of a controlling shareholder which is a company:
	36(1)	any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;
	36(2)	any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the controlling shareholder's directions or instructions;
	36(3)	any company in the capital of which the controlling shareholder and any other company under paragraph (1) or (2) taken together, is (or would on the fulfilment of a condition or the occurrence of a contingency be) able to exercise power of the type described in paragraph (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this definition.
authorised person	(in accordance with section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons)) one of the following:
	(a)	a person who has a Part 4A permission to carry on one or more regulated activities;
	(b)	[deleted]52
	(c)	[deleted]52
	(d)	[deleted]52
	(e)	an ICVC;
	(f)	the Society of Lloyd's.13
	(see also GEN 2.2.18R for the position of an authorised partnership or unincorporated association which is dissolved.)52
bank	(a)	a firm with a Part 4A permission which includes accepting deposits, and: (i) which is a credit institution; 52 (ii) [deleted]524 4 but which is not a building society, a friendly society or a credit union;
	(b)	[deleted]52
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in article 8 of the Prospectus Regulation.53 29
29body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
book value of property	(in relation to a property company) the value of a property (which is not classified as a net current asset) before the deduction of mortgages or borrowings as shown in the company's latest annual report and accounts.
29break fee arrangement	an arrangement falling within the description in LR 10.2.6A R.
53	53
business day	(1)	(in relation to anything done or to be done in (including to be submitted to a place in) any part of the United Kingdom), any day which is not a Saturday or Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a bank holiday in that part of the United Kingdom;
	(2)	(in relation to anything done or to be done by reference to a market outside the United Kingdom) any day on which that market is normally open for business.
44	44
CARD	Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.
certificate representing certain securities	the investment specified in article 80 of the Regulated Activities Order (Certificates representing certain securities), which is in summary: a certificate or other instrument which confers contractual or property rights (other than rights consisting of options):
	(a)	in respect of any share, debenture, alternative debenture,19 government and public security or warrant held by a person other than the person on whom the rights are conferred by the certificate or instrument; and 19
	(b)	the transfer of which may be effected without requiring the consent of that person;
	but excluding any certificate or other instrument which confers rights in respect of two or more investments issued by different persons or in respect of two or more different government and public securities issued by the same person.
certificate representing debt securities	a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of debentures, alternative debentures,19 or government and public securities.
certificate representing equity securities	a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity securities.
certificate representing shares	a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity shares.30
charge	(in relation to securitised derivatives) means any payment identified under the terms and conditions of the securitised derivatives.
Chinese wall	an arrangement that requires information held by a person in the course of carrying on one part of its business to be withheld from, or not to be used for, persons with or for whom it acts in the course of carrying on another part of its business.
circular	any document issued to holders of listed securities including notices of meetings but excluding prospectuses, listing particulars, annual reports and accounts, interim reports, proxy cards and dividend or interest vouchers.
class	securities the rights attaching to which are or will be identical and which form a single issue or issues.
class 1 acquisition	a class 1 transaction that involves an acquisition by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.
class 1 circular	a circular relating to a class 1 transaction or a transaction which must comply with the requirements of a class 1 transaction 38.
class 1 disposal	a class 1 transaction that consists of a disposal by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.
class 1 transaction	a transaction classified as a class 1 transaction under LR 1060.
class 2 transaction	a transaction classified as a class 2 transaction under LR 1060. 29
class tests	the tests set out in LR 10 Annex 1(and for certain specialist companies, those tests as modified or added to by LR 10.7), which are used to determine how a transaction is to be classified for the purposes of the listing rules.
closed-ended	(in relation to investment entities) an investment entity 58 which is not an open-ended investment company.
5closed-ended investment fund	an entity:
	(a)	which is an undertaking with limited liability, including a company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership; and
	(b)	whose primary object is investing and managing its assets (including pooled funds contributed by holders of its listed securities):
		(i) in property of any description; and
		(ii) with a view to spreading investment risk.
43	43
COBS9	the Conduct of Business sourcebook, from 1 November 20079.
3Combined Code	in relation to an issuerthe Combined Code on Corporate Governance published in June 2008 by the Financial Reporting Council.18 18
company	any body corporate.
competent authority	(in relation to the functions referred to in Part VI of the Act) the FCA 52
		52
		52
connected client	in relation to a sponsor or securities house, any client of the sponsor or securities house who is:
	(a)	a partner, director, employee or controller (as defined in section 422 of the Act) of the sponsor or securities house or of an undertaking described in paragraph (d);
	(b)	the spouse , civil partner 2or child of any individual described in paragraph (a);
	(c)	a person in his capacity as trustee of a private trust (other than a pension scheme or an employees' share scheme) the beneficiaries of which include any person described in paragraph (a) or (b); or
	(d)	an undertaking which in relation to the sponsor or securities house is a group undertaking.
connected person	(in DTR and LR in relation to a person discharging managerial responsibilities within an issuer) has the meaning given to “person closely associated” in article 3(1)(26) of the Market Abuse Regulation.43
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities (No 2001/34/EC).
constitution	memorandum and articles of association or equivalent constitutional document.
contingent liability investment	a derivative under the terms of which the client will or may be liable to make further payments (other than charges, and whether or not secured by margin) when the transaction falls to be completed or upon the earlier closing out of his position.
contract of significance	a contract which represents in amount or value (or annual amount or value) a sum equal to 1% or more, calculated on a group basis where relevant, of:
	(1)	in the case of a capital transaction or a transaction of which the principal purpose or effect is the granting of credit, the aggregate of the group's share capital and reserves; or
	(2)	in other cases, the total annual purchases, sales, payments or receipts, as the case may be, of the group.
36controlling shareholder	means any person who exercises or controls on their own or together with any person with whom they are acting in concert, 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company. For the purposes of calculating voting rights, the following voting rights are to be disregarded:49
	(1)	any voting rights which such a person exercises (or controls the exercise of) independently in its capacity as: bare trustee, investment manager, collective investment undertaking or a long-term insurer in respect of its linked long-term business if no associate of that person interferes by giving direct or indirect instructions, or in any other way, in the exercise of such voting rights (except to the extent any such person confers or collaborates with such an associate which also acts in its capacity as investment manager, collective investment undertaking or long-term insurer); or49
	(2)	any voting rights which a person may hold (or control the exercise of) solely in relation to the direct performance, by way of business, of:49
		(a)	underwriting the issue or sale of securities; or49
		(b)	placing securities, where the person provides a firm commitment to acquire any securities which it does not place; or 49
		(c)	acquiring securities from existing shareholders or the issuer pursuant to an agreement to procure third-party purchases of securities;49
	and where the conditions below are satisfied:49
	(i)	the activities set out in (2)(a) to (c) are performed in the ordinary course of business;49
	(ii)	the securities to which the voting rights attach are held for a consecutive period of 5 trading days or less, beginning with the first trading day on which the securities are held;49
	(iii)	the voting rights are not exercised within the period the securities are held; and49
	(iv)	no attempt is made directly or indirectly by the person to intervene in (or attempt to intervene in) or exert (or attempt to exert) influence on the management of the issuer within the period the securities are held.49
convertible securities	a security which is:
	(1)	convertible into, or exchangeable for, other securities; or
	(2)	accompanied by a warrant 33 or option 33 to subscribe for or purchase other securities. 33 33
deal	a dealing transaction;
dealing	(in accordance with paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 to the Act (Regulated activities)) buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting investments or offering or agreeing to do so, either as principal or as an43 agent, including, in the case of an investment which is a contract of insurance, carrying out the contract.
debt security	debentures, alternative debentures,19 debenture stock, loan stock, bonds, certificates of deposit or any other instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness.7
6deferred bonus	any arrangement pursuant to the terms of which an employee or director may receive a bonus (including cash or any security) in respect of service and/or performance in a period not exceeding the length of the relevant financial year notwithstanding that the bonus may, subject only to the person remaining a director or employee of the group, be receivable by the person after the end of the period to which the award relates.
6defined benefit scheme	in relation to a director, means a pension scheme which is not a money purchase scheme.
depositary	a person that issues certificates representing certain securities that have been admitted to listing 33 or are the subject of an application for admission to listing. 33
7 DEPP	the Decision Procedure and Penalties manual
designated professional body	a professional body designated by the Treasury under section 326 of the Act (Designation of professional bodies) for the purposes of Part XX of the Act 60 (Provision of Financial Services by Members of the Professions); 60the following professional bodies have been designated in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1226), the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) (Amendment) Order 2004 (SI 2004/3352) and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) (Amendment) Order 2006 (SI 2006/58)60: (a) The Law Society of England and Wales60; (b) The Law Society of Scotland; (c) The Law Society of Northern Ireland; (d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales; (e) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Scotland; (f) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in Ireland; (g) The Association of Chartered Certified Accountants; (h) The Institute of Actuaries;. (i) The Council for Licensed Conveyancers; and60 (j) The Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors.60
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
43 disclosure guidance	the guidance contained in DTR 1 to 3
disclosure requirements 43 16 16	articles 17, 18 and 19 of the Market Abuse Regulation.43 16 16
document	any piece of recorded information, including (in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation)) information recorded in any form; in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include references to producing a copy of the information in legible form.
60	60
DTR	the Disclosure Guidance43 and Transparency Rules39 sourcebook containing the disclosure guidance 43, transparency rules,39 corporate governance rules and the rules relating to primary information providers.16 39 16 39
39E-Commerce Directive	the Council Directive of 8 June 2002 on legal aspects of information society services, in particular electronic commerce, in the Internal Market (No 2000/31/EC).
EEA State	(in accordance with Schedule 1 to the Interpretation Act 1978), in relation to any time:52
	(a)	a state which at that time is a member State; or52
	(b)	any other state which is at that time a party to the EEA agreement.52
	[Note: Current non-member State parties to the EEA agreement are Norway, Iceland and Lichtenstein.]52
7 EG	the Enforcement Guide
employee	an individual:
	(a)	who is employed or appointed by a person in connection with that person's business, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or
	(b)	whose services, under an arrangement between that person and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of that person;
	but excluding an appointed representative or, where applicable, a tied agent 9 of that person.
employees' share scheme	has the same meaning as in section 116615 of the Companies Act 200615.7 6 6 8 6 6 8
equity security	equity shares and securities convertible into equity shares.
equity share20	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
53 6	53 38
38ESMA	European Securities and Markets Authority.
62 40 40	62 40 60 40
52EU	the European Union, being the Union established by the Treaty on European Union signed at Maastricht on 7 February 1992 (as amended), taking into account United Kingdom’s withdrawal from the Union pursuant to Article 50 of the Treaty.
52EU-adopted International Accounting Standards (or EU adopted IFRS)	means the international accounting standards within the meaning of EC Regulation No 1606/2002 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 19 July 2002 as adopted from time to time by the European Commission in accordance with that Regulation.
52EUWA	the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018.
64executive management	the executive committee or most senior executive or managerial body below the board (or where there is no such formal committee or body, the most senior level of managers reporting to the chief executive), including the company secretary but excluding administrative and support staff.
exercise notice	(in relation to securitised derivatives), a document that notifies the issuer of a holder's intention to exercise its rights under the securitised derivative.
exercise price	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the price stipulated by the issuer at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying instrument from or to the issuer.
exercise time	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the time stipulated by the issuer by which the holder must exercise their rights.
expiration date	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the date stipulated by the issuer on which the holder's rights in respect of the securitised derivative ends.
27external management company	(in LR and PRR 53) has the meaning in PRR 5.3.3R53. (i.e., in relation to an issuer that is a company which is not a collective investment undertaking, a person who is appointed by the issuer (whether under a contract of service, a contract for services or any other commercial arrangement) to perform functions that would ordinarily be performed by officers of the issuer and to make recommendations in relation to strategic matters).
extraction	(in relation to mineral companies), includes mining, quarrying or similar activities and the reworking of mine tailings or waste dumps.
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
final terms	the document containing the final terms of each issue which is intended to be listed.
financial information table	financial information presented in a tabular form that covers the reporting period set out in LR 13.5.13 R in relation to the entities set out in LR 13.5.14 R, and to the extent relevant LR 13.5.17A R30. 30
57founding shareholder	as defined in LR 5.6.18BR.
57public shareholder	as defined in LR 5.6.18BR.
group	(1)	except in LR 6.4.3G, LR 6.5.3G, LR 6.14.3R, LR 6.14.4G49, LR 8.7.8R (10),LR 14.2.2 R, LR 14.2.3A G, LR 18.2.8 R and LR 18.2.9A G36, 6an issuer and its subsidiary undertakings (if any); and 36 12 36 36
	(2)	in LR 6.4.3G, LR 6.5.3G, LR 6.14.3R, LR 6.14.4G49, LR 8.7.8R (10), 6LR 14.2.2 R, LR 14.2.3A G, LR 18.2.8 R and LR 18.2.9A G36as defined in section 421 of the Act. 36 12 36 36
guarantee	(in relation to securitised derivatives), either:
	(1)	a guarantee given in accordance with LR 19.2.2 R (3)(if any); or
	(2)	any other guarantee of the issue of securitised derivatives.
guidance	guidance given in the FCA Handbook,60 by the FCA under the Act.
Handbook	the FCA Handbook 60.28
28holding company	(as defined in section 1159(1) of the Companies Act 2006 (Meaning of "subsidiary" etc) (in relation to another body corporate ("S")) a body corporate which:
	(a)	holds a majority of the voting rights in S; or
	(b)	is a member of S and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of its board of directors; or
	(c)	is a member of S and controls alone, under an agreement with other shareholders and members, a majority of the voting rights in S.
Home Member State or Home State	[deleted]54 52
Host Member State or Host State	[deleted]54 52
52	52 39
36independent director	a director whom an applicant 49 or listed company has determined to be independent under the UK Corporate Governance Code.
36independent shareholder	any person entitled to vote on the election of directors of a listed company that is not a controlling shareholder of the listed company.
39information society service	an information society service, as defined by article 2(a) of the E-Commerce Directive and article 1(2) of the Technical Standards and Regulations Directive (98/34/EC), which is in summary any service normally provided for remuneration, at a distance, by means of electronic equipment for the processing (including the digital compression) and storage of data at the individual request of a service recipient.
inside information	as described in article 7 of the Market Abuse Regulation 45.
43	43
intermediaries offer	a marketing of securities already or not yet in issue, by means of an offer by, or on behalf of, the issuer to intermediaries for them to allocate to their own clients.
52	52
in the money	(in relation to securitised derivatives):
	(a)	where the holder has the right to buy the underlying instrument or instruments from the issuer, when the settlement price is greater than the exercise price; or
	(b)	where the holder has the right to sell the underlying instrument or instruments to the issuer, when the exercise price is greater than the settlement price.5
10investment entity	an entity whose primary object is investing and managing its assets with a view to spreading or otherwise managing investment risk.
investment manager	a person who, on behalf of a client, manages investments and is not a wholly-owned subsidiary of the client.5 5
investment trust	a company which: 40
	(a)	is approved by the Commissioners for HM Revenue and Customs33 under sections 1158 and 1159 of the Corporation Tax Act 201040 (or, in the case of a newly formed company, has declared its intention to conduct its affairs so as to obtain such approval); or 33 40
	(b)	(for the purposes of COBS 4.14 and60 the definitions of non-mainstream pooled investment and packaged product only)52 is resident in an EEA State 52and would qualify for such approval if resident in the United Kingdom.
issuer	any company or other legal person or undertaking (including a public sector issuer), any class of whose securities has been admitted to listing 33 or is the subject of an application for admission to listing 33. 33 33
29limited liability partnership	(a) a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000; (b) a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
list of sponsors	the list of sponsors maintained by theFCA in accordance with section 88(3)(a) of the Act.
listed	admitted to the official list maintained by the FCA in accordance with section 74 of the Act.
listed company	a company that has any class of its securities listed.
listing particulars	(in accordance with section 79(2) of the Act), a document in such form and containing such information as may be specified in listing rules.
listing rules	(in accordance with sections 73A(1) and 1673A(2) of the Act) rules 16relating to admission to the official list. 16 16
London Stock Exchange	London Stock Exchange Plc.
long-term incentive scheme	any arrangement (other than a retirement benefit plan, a deferred bonus or any other arrangement that is an element of an executive director's remuneration package) which may involve the receipt of any asset (including cash or any security) by a director or employee of the group:
	(1)	which includes one or more conditions in respect of service and/or performance to be satisfied over more than one financial year; and
	(2)	pursuant to which the group may incur (other than in relation to the establishment and administration of the arrangement) either cost or a liability, whether actual or contingent.
LR	the Listing Rules sourcebook60. 29
45
major subsidiary undertaking	a subsidiary undertaking that represents 25% or more of the aggregate of the gross assets or profits (after deducting all charges except taxation) of the group.
45
43 Market Abuse Regulation	the UK version of52 Regulation (EU) No 596/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 April 2014 on market abuse (market abuse regulation) and repealing Directive 2003/6/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council46 and Commission Directives 2003/124/EC, 2003/125/EC and 2004/72/EC, which is part of United Kingdom law by virtue of the EUWA.52 45
member	(as defined in section 325(2) of the Act (FCA’s general duty))60 (in relation to a profession) a person who is entitled to practise that profession and, in practising it, is subject to the rules of the relevant designated professional body, whether or not he is a member of that body.
mineral company	a company or group, whose principal activity is, or is planned to be, the extraction of mineral resources (which may or may not include exploration for mineral resources).
mineral expert's report	a competent person's36 report prepared in accordance with paragraph 133 of36 section III.2 of the technical note on PR disclosure and specialist issuers 62. 40 40 30
mineral resources	include metallic and non-metallic ores, mineral concentrates, industrial minerals, construction aggregates, mineral oils, natural gases, hydrocarbons and solid fuels including coal.
64minority ethnic background	from one of the following categories of ethnic background, as set out in the tables in LR 9 Annex 2.1R(b) and LR 14 Annex 1.1R(b), excluding the category “White British or other White (including minority-white groups)”:
	(1) Asian/Asian British;
	(2) Black/African/Caribbean/Black British;
	(3) Mixed/Multiple Ethnic Groups; and
	(4) Other ethnic group, including Arab.
miscellaneous securities20	securities which are not:
	(a)	shares; or
	(b)	debt securities; or
	(c)	asset backed securities; or
	(d)	certificates representing debt securities; or
	(e)	convertible securities which convert to debt securities; or
	(f)	convertible securities which convert to equity securities; or
	(g)	convertible securities which are exchangeable for securities of another company; or
	(h)	certificates representing certain securities; or
	(i)	securitised derivatives.
43	43
30modified report 30	an accountant's or 30auditor's report:
	(a)	in which the opinion is modified; or30 30
	(b)	which contains an emphasis-of-matter paragraph.30 30
6money purchase scheme	in relation to a director, means a pension scheme under which all of the benefits that may become payable to or in respect of the director are money purchase benefits.
60national storage mechanism	the system identified by the FCA on its website as the national storage mechanism for regulatory announcements and certain documents published by issuers.
net annual rent	(in relation to a property) the current income or income estimated by the valuer:
	(1)	ignoring any special receipts or deductions arising from the property;
	(2)	excluding Value Added Tax and before taxation (including tax on profits and any allowances for interest on capital or loans); and
	(3)	after making deductions for superior rents (but not for amortisation) and any disbursements including, if appropriate, expenses of managing the property and allowances to maintain it in a condition to command its rent.
49
52	52
OECD state guaranteed issuer	an issuer of debt securities whose obligations in relation to those securities33 have been guaranteed by a member state of the OECD. 33
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer for sale	an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, a third party to purchase securities of the issuer already in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).
offer for subscription	an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, an issuer to subscribe for securities of the issuer not yet in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in the Prospectus Regulation) a communication to persons in any form and by any means, presenting sufficient information on the terms of the offer and the securities to be offered, so as to enable an investor to decide to purchase or subscribe for those securities. This definition also applies to the placing of securities through financial intermediaries.53
	53	53
		53
		53
	53	53
	53	53
	53	53
	53
offeror	(a)	in LR 5.2.10 R to LR 5.2.11D R36, an offeror as defined in the Takeover Code; and
	(b)	elsewhere in LR, a person 36who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public. 36
official list	the list maintained by the FCA in accordance with section 74(1) of the Act for the purposes of Part VI of the Act.
open-ended investment company33 33	as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies).
open offer	an invitation to existing securities holders to subscribe or purchase securities in proportion to their holdings, which is not made by means of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document).31
31operational objectives	as defined in section 1B(3) of the Act.
option	the investment, specified in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order (Options), which is in summary60 an option to acquire or dispose of: (a) a designated investment (other than a P2P agreement,37an option or one to which (d) or (e) applies60); or (b) currency of the United Kingdom or of any other country or territory; or (c) palladium, platinum, gold or silver; or (d) a commodity to which article 83(2) and (4) of the Regulated Activities Order applies; or60 (e) a financial instrument in paragraph 10 of Section C of Annex 1 to MiFID to which article 83(3) and (4) of the Regulated Activities Order applies; or60 (f) an option to acquire or dispose of an option specified in (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e),60 but so that for the purposes of calculating capital requirements for BIPRU firms it also includes any of the items listed in the table in BIPRU 7.6.18R (Option PRR: methods for different types of option) and any cash settled option.60
overseas	outside the United Kingdom.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
overseas investment exchange	an investment exchange which has neither its head office nor its registered office in the United Kingdom.
parent undertaking	as defined in section 116215 of the Companies Act 200615. 6 6 8 6 6 8
60	60
53	prospectus directive.53
60	60 52
percentage ratio	(in relation to a transaction) the figure, expressed as a percentage, that results from applying a calculation under a class test 22 to the transaction. 22
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporate (that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
person discharging managerial responsibilities	as defined in article 3(1)(25) of the Market Abuse Regulation 45.
person exercising significant influence	in relation to a listed company, a person or entity which exercises significant influence over that listed company. 6
placing	a marketing of securities already in issue but not listed or not yet in issue, to specified persons or clients of the sponsor or any securities house assisting in the placing, which does not involve an offer to the public or to existing holders of the issuer's securities generally.

preference share	a share conferring preference as to income or return of capital which does not form part of the equity share capital of a company. 20
16premium listing	(a)	in relation to equity shares 20 (other those of a closed-ended investment fund 58 or of a sovereign controlled commercial company that is required to comply with the requirements in LR 2150), means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with those requirements in LR 6 (Additional requirements for premium listing (commercial company)) and the20 other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;
	(b)	in relation to equity shares 20 of a closed-ended investment fund, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 15 (Closed-Ended Investment Funds: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;
	(c)	[deleted]58 20 50
	(d)	in relation to equity shares of a sovereign controlled commercial company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 (Sovereign controlled commercial companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing; and50
	(e)	in relation to certificates representing shares of a sovereign controlled commercial company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 (Sovereign controlled commercial companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing.50
premium listing (commercial company)	a premium listing of equity shares 21 (other than those of a closed-ended investment fund 58or of a sovereign controlled commercial company that is required to comply with the requirements in LR 2150). 21
58premium listing (closed-ended investment fund)	a premium listing of equity shares of a closed-ended investment fund.
50 premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company)	a premium listing of:
	(a)	equity shares (other than those of a closed-ended investment fund 58); or
	(b)	certificates representing shares,
	where the issuer of the equity shares or, in the case of certificates representing shares, the issuer of the equity shares which the certificates represent is a sovereign controlled commercial company and is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to securities in this category.
	58 21 21 39
39primary information provider	a person approved by the FCA under section 89P of the Act.
probable reserves	(1)	in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which are not yet proven but which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 50% chance of being produced; and
	(2)	in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured and/or indicated mineral resources, which are not yet proven but of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination and under specified economic conditions.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PR Regulation 53) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PR Regulation 53) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
43	43 33 33
property	freehold, heritable or leasehold property.
property company	a company primarily engaged in property 33 activities including: 33
	(1)	the holding of properties (directly or indirectly) for letting and retention as investments;
	(2)	the development of properties for letting and retention as investments;
	(3)	the purchase and development of properties for subsequent sale; or
	(4)	the purchase of land for development properties for retention as investments.5
property valuation report	a property valuation report prepared by an independent expert in accordance with:6 6
	(1)	for an issuer incorporated in the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man, the Appraisal and Valuation Standards (5th edition) issued by the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors; or6
	(2)	for an issuer incorporated in any other place, either the standards referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition or the International Valuation Standards (7th edition) issued by the International Valuation Standards Committee.6
prospectus	a prospectus required under the Prospectus Regulation. 54 52
53	53
54Prospectus Regulation	the UK version of Regulation (EU) No 2017/1129 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 June 2017 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading on a regulated market, and repealing Directive 2003/71/EC, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA.
54Prospectus RTS Regulation	the UK version of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/979, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA.
52 Prospectus RTS Regulation 2	[deleted]54
prospectus rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.33 33
proven reserves	(1)	in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 90% chance of being produced; and
	(2)	in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured mineral resources of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination, and under specified economic conditions.
53 PRR	the Prospectus Regulation Rules sourcebook.
53 PR Regulation	the UK version of54 Regulation number 2019/980 of the European Commission, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA 54.
public international body	the African Development Bank60, the Asian Development Bank, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank,60 the Caribbean Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank6, the European Atomic Energy Community, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Company for the Financing of Railroad Stock, the EU,17 the European Investment Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Monetary Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank60. 6 17 17
public sector issuer	states and their regional and local authorities, state monopolies, state finance organisations, public international bodies, statutory bodies and OECD state guaranteed issuers.
recognised scheme	a scheme recognised for the purpose of part XVII of the Act.52
	52	52
	(b)	[deleted]35 35
	52	52
registration document	a registration document referred to in article 6(3) of the Prospectus Regulation 53.
Regulated Activities Order	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (SI 2001/544).9
regulated market	a regulated market which is a UK RIE.52 [Note: article 2(1)(13A52) of MiFIR 52]33 33 33 47 9 47
regulatory information service or RIS	a primary information provider 52 39 39 41 41 41 41
related party	as defined in LR 11.1.4 R.
related party circular	a circular relating to a related party transaction.
related party transaction	as defined in LR 11.1.5 R.
retail securitised derivative	a securitised derivative which is not a specialist securitised derivative; in this definition, a "specialist securitised derivative" is a securitised derivative which, in accordance with the listing rules, is required to be admitted to listing with a clear statement on any disclosure document that the issue is intended for a purchase by only investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
reverse takeover	a transaction classified as a reverse takeover under LR 5.6.28 28
RIE	recognised investment exchange.
rights issue	an offer to existing security holders to subscribe or purchase further securities in proportion to their holdings made by means of the issue of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document) which may be traded (as “nil paid” rights) for a period before payment for the securities is due.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA or the PRA 60 under the Act (including as applied by the Payment Services Regulations and the Electronic Money Regulations)60, including: (a) a Principle; and (b) an evidential provision.
53 33 33	53
scientific research based company
securities note	a securities note referred to in article 6(3) of the Prospectus Regulation 53.
securitised derivative	an option or contract for differences which, in either case, is listed under LR 19 (including such an option or contract for differences 33 which is also a debenture). 33
security	(in accordance with section 102A of the Act) anything which has been, or may be admitted to the official list.
settlement price	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the reference price or prices of the underlying instrument or instruments stipulated by the issuer for the purposes of calculating its obligations to the holder.
shadow director	as in sub-paragraph (b) of the definition of director in section 417(1) of the Act.
share	(in accordance with section 540(1)15 of the Companies Act 200615) a share in the share capital of a company, and includes: 6 6 8 15 6 6 8 15
	(a)	stock (except where a distinction between shares and stock is express or implied); 60
	(b)	preference shares; and60
	(c)	in chapters 4, 5, 6 and 7 of DTR a convertible share.60
49 shell company	as defined in LR 5.6.5AR.
specialist investor	an investor who is particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
specialist securities	securities which, because of their nature, are normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
specialist securitised derivative	a securitised derivative which because of its nature is normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
specified investment	any of the following investments specified in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified Investments):
	(a)	deposit (article 74);
	(aa)	electronic money (article 74A);
	(b)	contract of insurance (article 75); for the purposes of the permission 60 regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) general insurance contract; (ii) long-term insurance contract;
		and then further sub-divided into classes of contract of insurance;
	(c)	share (article 76);
	(d)	debenture (article 77);19
	(da)	alternative debenture (article 77A);19
	(e)	government and public security (article 78);
	(f)	warrant (article 79);
	(g)	certificate representing certain securities (article 80);
	(h)	unit (article 81);
	(i)	stakeholder pension scheme (article 82);24
	24(ia)	personal pension scheme (article 82(2));60 52
	60(iab)	pension scheme which provides safeguarded benefits (article 82(3)) (but only in relation to advising on conversion or transfer of pension benefits));
	(j)	option (article 83); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) option (excluding a commodity option and an option on a commodity future); (ii) commodity option and an option on a commodity future;
	(k)	future (article 84); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) future (excluding a commodity future and a rolling spot forex contract); (ii) commodity future; (iii) rolling spot forex contract;
	(l)	contract for differences (article 85); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) contract for differences (excluding a spread bet and a rolling spot forex contract); (ii) spread bet; (iii) rolling spot forex contract;
	(m)	underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(1));
	(n)	membership of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(2));
	(o)	funeral plan contract (article 87);
	(oa)	regulated mortgage contract (article 61(3);
23	(ob)	home reversion plan (article 63B(3));
23	(oc)	home purchase plan (article 63F(3));
23	(od)	regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 63J(3));
56	(oe)	emissions auction product (article 82A);
	60(of)	credit agreement (article 88D) for the purposes of the permission regime with respect to the regulated activities of entering into a regulated credit agreement as lender and exercising, or having the right to exercise, the lender’s rights and duties under a regulated credit agreement, this is sub-divided into:
		(i)	a credit agreement (excluding high-cost short-term credit, a home credit loan agreement and a bill of sale loan agreement);
		(ii)	high-cost short-term credit;
		(iii)	a home credit loan agreement;
		(iv)	bill of sale loan agreement,
		and this has effect as if the reference to a credit agreement includes a reference to an article 36H agreement within the meaning of article 36H (4) of the Regulated Activities Order;
	60(og)	consumer hire agreement (article 88E);
	(p)	rights to or interests in investments (article 89).
59 specified weighted voting rights shares	has the meaning given to it in LR 9.2.22CR.
sponsor	(1)	except in LR 5.6.18AG, a person approved, under section 88 of the Act by the FCA, as a sponsor.57
	(2)	in LR 5.6.18AG, as defined in LR 5.6.18BR.57
38sponsor declaration	a declaration submitted by a sponsor to the FCA as required under LR 8.4.3 R (Application for listing), LR 8.4.9 R (Further application for listing), LR 8.4.13 R (Production of circular) or LR 8.4.14 R (Transfer between listing category).
12sponsor service	a service relating to a matter referred to in LR 8.2 that a sponsor provides or is requested or appointed to provide including32 preparatory work that a sponsor may undertake before a decision is taken as to whether or not it will act as sponsor for a listed 32 company or applicant 33 or in relation to a particular transaction, and including all the sponsor's communications with the FCA 33 in connection with the service32. But nothing in this definition is to be taken as requiring a sponsor when requested32 to agree to act as a sponsor for a company or in relation to a transaction. 32 32 33
standard listing	in relation to securities, means a listing that is not a premium listing.
58 standard listing (open-ended investment company)	a standard listing of equity shares of an open-ended investment company.
20 standard listing (shares)	a standard listing of shares other than preference shares that are specialist securities.
state finance organisation	a legal person other than a company:
	(1)	which is a national of a state52;
	(2)	which is set up by or pursuant to a special law;
	(3)	whose activities are governed by that law and consist solely of raising funds under state control through the issue of debt securities;
	(4)	which is financed by means of the resources they have raised and resources provided by the state52; and
	(5)	the debt securities issued by it are considered by the law of the relevant state52 as securities issued or guaranteed by that state.
state monopoly	a company or other legal person which is a national of a state52 and which:
	(1)	in carrying on its business benefits from a monopoly right granted by a state52; and
	(2)	is set up by or pursuant to a special law or whose borrowings are unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by a state or one of a state’s federated states.52
subsidiary undertaking	as defined in section 116215 of the Companies Act 200615. 6 6 8 15 6 6 8 15
substantial shareholder	as defined in LR 11.1.4A R.25 6 6 25
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary60 included in the prospectus.
SUP	the Supervision manual.
supplementary listing particulars	(in accordance with section 81(1) of the Act), supplementary listing particulars containing details of the change or new matter.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
Takeover Code	the City Code on Takeovers and Mergers issued by the Takeover Panel.
target	the subject of a class 1 transaction or reverse takeover 28.
TCFD Annex	the document entitled “Implementing the Recommendations of the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures” published in October 2021 61by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.55
61TCFD Guidance on Metrics, Targets and Transition Plans	the document entitled “Guidance on Metrics, Targets, and Transition Plans” published in October 2021 by the Task Force on Climate related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.
TCFD Final Report	the report entitled “Recommendations of the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures” published in June 2017 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.55
TCFD Guidance on Risk Management Integration and Disclosure	the document entitled “Guidance on Risk Management Integration and Disclosure” published in October 2020 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org..55
TCFD Guidance on Scenario Analysis for Non-Financial Companies	the document entitled “Guidance on Scenario Analysis for Non-Financial Companies” published in October 2020 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org.55
TCFD Recommendations and Recommended Disclosures	the four recommendations and the eleven recommended disclosures set out in Figure 4 of Section C of the TCFD Final Report.55
TCFD Technical Supplementon the Use of Scenario Analysis61	the technical supplement entitled “The Use of Scenario Analysis in Disclosure of Climate-related Risks and Opportunities” published in June 2017 by the Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures, available at: https://www.fsb-tcfd.org..55
54TD Equivalence Decision	the UK version of Commission Decision (EC) No 2008/961 of 12 December 2008 on the use by third countries’ issuers of securities of certain third country’s national accounting standards and International Financial Reporting Standards to prepare their consolidated financial statements, which is part of UK law by virtue of the EUWA.
62technical note on PR disclosure and specialist issuers	the Guidelines on disclosure requirements under the Prospectus Regulation and Guidance on specialist issuers published by the FCA (Primary Market TN 619.1) as part of the FCA’s technical guidance on LR, PRR, and DTR. [Note: the technical guidance can be accessed in the FCA’s Knowledge Base at https://www.fca.org.uk/markets/primary-markets/knowledge-base.]
tender offer	an offer by a company to purchase all or some of a class of its listed equity securities at a maximum or fixed price (that may be established by means of a formula) that is: 20
	(1)	communicated to all holders of that class by means of a circular or advertisement in two national newspapers;
	(2)	open to all holders of that class on the same terms for at least 7 days; and
	(3)	open for acceptance by all holders of that class pro rata to their existing holdings.25
52third country	a territory or country which is not the United Kingdom.
25trading day	any day of normal trading in a share on a regulated market or MTF in the United Kingdom for this share.60 33 33
43 14	43
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFIR 52, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of MiFIR 52 which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 9 9
26transparency rules	in accordance with sections 73A(1) and 89A of the Act, rules relating to the notification and dissemination of information in respect of issuers of transferable securities and relating to major shareholdings.
treasury shares	shares which meet the conditions set out in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection 724(5) of the Companies Act 2006.15 6 6 8 6 6 8 15
trust deed	a trust deed or equivalent document securing or constituting debt securities.
UK	United Kingdom.
52UK-adopted international accounting standards	(in accordance with section 474(1) of the Companies Act 2006) international accounting standards which are adopted for use within the United Kingdom by virtue of Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 2 of the International Accounting Standards and European Public Limited-Liability Company (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019.
52UK-adopted IFRS	UK-adopted international accounting standards.
18 UK Corporate Governance Code	the UK Corporate Governance Code published in July 201851 by the Financial Reporting Council, available at: https://www.frc.org.uk/directors/corporate-governance-and-stewardship/uk-corporate-governance-code 48. 40 40 48 42 40
underlying instrument	(in relation to securitised derivatives) means either:
	(1)	if the securitised derivative is an option or debt security with the characteristics of an option, any of the underlying investments listed in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order; or
	(2)	if the securitised derivative is a contract for differences or debt security with the characteristics of a contract for differences, any factor by reference to which a profit or loss under article 85 of the Regulated Activities Order can be calculated.
53 universal registration document	a universal registration document referred to in article 9 of the Prospectus Regulation.
unrecognised scheme	a collective investment scheme which is neither a recognised scheme nor a scheme that is constituted as an authorised unit trust scheme or an authorised contractual scheme.34
vendor consideration placing	a marketing, by or on behalf of vendors, of securities that have been allotted as consideration for an acquisition.
venture capital trust	a company which is, or which is seeking to become, approved as a venture capital trust under section 842AA of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988.
warrant	the investment, specified in article 79 of the Regulated Activities Order (Instruments giving entitlements to investments), which is in summary: a warrant or other instrument entitling the holder to subscribe for a share, debenture, alternative debenture 19 or government and public security.
59 weighted voting rights shares	shares that carry more than one vote on one or more matters to be decided at a general meeting.
50 sovereign controlled commercial company	an issuer in which a State exercises or controls 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of that company.
50 sovereign controlling shareholder	(in relation to a company with or applying for a listing of equity shares or certificates representing shares in the category of premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company)) a State which exercises or controls 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company.
50 State	means:
	(a)	the sovereign or other head of a State in their public capacity;
	(b)	the government of a State;
	(c)	a department of a State; or
	(d)	an agency or a special purpose vehicle of a State, including an agency or special purpose vehicle of (a), (b) or (c).

SUP 12.4.12G01/01/2021

(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). The19 register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. 13(2) A MiFID investment firm19 that appoints an FCA registered tied agent who is not registered with the FCA will, subject to certain conditions, be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed on it by or under the Act (see

FEES 3.2.7R01/07/2022

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66 31
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application. 66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: 66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or 66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission 66, the fee payable is the higher of: 79 (i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 79 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 79 (4) [deleted]66 1 41 79 1 34 34 34 34 34 34 34 41	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) [deleted]56 4
(c) [deleted]66
(d) [deleted]66 27	27 27
(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R: 66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme; 66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF; 68 66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68 66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM. 58 36 66 66	Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66 36	On or before the date the application or notification66 is made 36
(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66 66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body; 66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges; 66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body; 66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company; 66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations; 66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations; 66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR; 66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10; 66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier. 27 27 27	Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 27 27	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 28
28(ea) [deleted]66 56 56
(eb) [deleted]66 28
(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66 66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order; 66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme; 66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond; 66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D; 66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for: 66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or 66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act. (vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.	Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 62 56 17 77 17 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
(ga) [deleted]52 26 35 35 35
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 77 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 77 77	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) [deleted]66
(o) [deleted]65 1 1 2 2 29 5 29 77 29 29 5 56 77 29 29 29 5 5 5 77 29 29 5 77 29 29 29 77 29 29 5	[deleted]65 5 2 5 5 5 1 2 5 1 5 5 5 5 1 5 77 5 77 5 5 2 56	[deleted]65 2 77 29 29 77 29 29 77 2 29
(oa) [deleted]65 29 37 37 37 37 58 56 37 37 37 37 58 37 37	[deleted]65 37	[deleted]65 37 37 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26	(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66 (2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66 (2A) [deleted]66 (3) [deleted]66 (3A) [deleted]66 (3B) [deleted]66 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66 66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR; (ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R; (3D) [deleted]66 (4) [deleted]66 [deleted]66 30 79 44 41 30 79 79 1 1 1 77 77 37 77 37 79 79 37 1 1 37 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 37 30 37 37 37 30 37 11 11 37 37 30 37 30 79 41 11 77 1 44 44 44	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 78 13 78 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
(s) [deleted]66 5	76 76 37 59 37 59 76 76 37 76 37	37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66 8	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66. 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(ya) [deleted]66 47	47	47
(z) [deleted]66 47
(za) [deleted]66 47
(zb) [deleted]66 47	50 50 47 50 50 47 50 47 47 47 47 47 50 50
(zc) [deleted]66 47	47 47 47 47 47 47
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]77 77	77	9 16 77
(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66. 16	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66	On or before the date the application is made.
(zh) [deleted]66 16
(zi) [deleted]66 16 14
(zj) [deleted]66 16	50 50
(zk) [deleted]66 16
(zl) [deleted]66 15		18
(zm) [deleted]66 18	41 41
(zn) [deleted]66 18	41 41	21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
77(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
77(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
(zs) [deleted]66 30 31	31 30 31 31
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 79	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 79 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 79 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 79	On or before the application is made.79
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(zw) [deleted]66 45 63 63 49 63
(zx) [deleted]66 46	63
(zy) [deleted]66 46 49 56	56 63
(zz) [deleted]66 51
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.	The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).	On the date the application is made.
(zzb) [deleted]66 52
(zzc) [deleted]66 52
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies	The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66 Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.	On the date the application is made.
(zze) [deleted]66 55
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.	5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.	The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.	On the date the application is made.
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.	(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).	On or before the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation 60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

BIPRU 4.3.12G01/01/2021

Where the firm'srating systems are used on a unified basis for the parent undertaking and its subsidiary undertakings under BIPRU 4.2.3 R, and approval and reporting of the ratings systems are carried out at the group level, the governance requirements in BIPRU 4.3.9 R and BIPRU 4.3.11 R may be met if:(1) the subsidiary undertakings have delegated to the governing body or designated committee of the parent institution in the UK or parent financial holding company in the UK5 responsibility

COLL 4.5.14R01/01/2021

(1) The authorised fund manager must, within four months after the end of each annual accounting period and two months after the end of each half-yearly accounting period respectively, make available and publish the long reports2 prepared in accordance with COLL 4.5.7R (1) to (3)2 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 4.5.8R (1) to (2)2 (Contents of the half-yearly long report).22(2) The reports referred to in (1) must:(a) be supplied free of charge to any person on request2;2(b)

BIPRU 4.4.22R01/01/2021

(1) This rule, in accordance with BIPRU 4.3.57 R (4) (Definition of default), sets the exact number of days past due that a firm should abide by in the case of exposures to PSEs.(2) For counterparts that are PSEs situated within the United Kingdom the number of days past due is 180.(3) [deleted]8(4) For counterparts that are PSEs in a state other than the UK8 the number of days past due is the lower of:(a) 180; and(b) (if a number of days past due for such exposures has been fixed

REC 2.5.1UK31/03/2022

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4
(1)	The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.
7[Note: SYSC 15A contains requirements relating to the operational resilience of UK RIEs]
(2)	Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -
	(a)	the transmission of information;
	(b)	the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE's relevant functions];
	(c)	the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];
	(ca)	the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;
	(d)	the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and
	(e)	(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.
	4(f)	the resilience of its trading systems;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]
	4(g)	the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]
	4(h)	the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;
	4(i)	the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;
	4(j)	the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;
	4(k)	the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];
	4(l)	the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;
	[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]
	4(m)	the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;
	4(n)	the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and
	4(o)	the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]
4(3)	For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -
	4(a)	establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and
	4(b)	monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.
4(4)	For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.
4(5)	The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.
4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must -
	4(a)	have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);
	4(b)	have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;
	4(c)	monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;
	4(d)	inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and
	4(e)	provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.
4(2)	A market making agreement must specify-
	4(a)	the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;
	4(b)	where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);
	4(c)	any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and
	4(d)	where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).
4(3)	For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -
	4(a)	the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;
	4(b)	the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and
	4(c)	the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.
4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must be able to -
	4(a)	temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and
	4(b)	in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.
4(2)	For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -
	4(a)	the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;
	4(b)	the nature of the trading venue market model; and
	4(c)	the types of users,
	4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.
4(3)	The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.
4(4)	If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]
4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access
4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -
4(1)	(a)	ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -
		4(i)	an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6
		4(ii)	a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6
		4(iii)	is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6
		4(iv)	is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
		4(v)	is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or
		4(vi)	is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;
	4(b)	ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;
	4(c)	ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6;
	4(d)	set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;
	4(e)	be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -
		4(i)	other orders; or
		4(ii)	trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and
	4(f)	have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]
4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services
4(1)	The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]
4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures
4(1)	The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -
	4(a)	be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]
	4(b)	not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]
	4(c)	impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.
4(2)	Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -
	4(a)	adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;
	4(b)	calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;
	4(c)	imposing a higher fee -
		4(i)	for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;
		4(ii)	on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or
		4(iii)	on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,
		4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.
4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -
	4(a)	the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and
	4(b)	the persons initiating those orders.
4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes
4(1)	Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -
	4(a)	shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]
	4(b)	any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue.
	[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
8(1A)	The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices.
	[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
4 (2)	The tick size regime must -
	4(a)	be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and
	4(b)	adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.
4(3)	The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]

TC 2.1.1R01/01/2021

(1) 13A firm must not assess an employee as competent to carry on an activity in TC Appendix 1 until the employee has demonstrated the necessary competence to do so and has (if required by TC Appendix 1) attained 16each module of an appropriate qualification16. This assessment need not take place before the employee starts to carry on the activity.14161613(2) [deleted]28161614

COBS 4.12.4R15/11/2021

(1)
3The restriction in COBS 4.12.3 R does not apply if the promotion falls within an exemption in the table in (5) below in accordance with (3)13.
(2)
A firm 13 may communicate an invitation or inducement to participate in an unregulated collective investment scheme without breaching the restriction on promotion in section 238 of the Act if the promotion falls within an exemption in the table in (5) below in accordance with (3)13.
(3)
A promotion falls within an exemption in the table in (5) below if13:
1. (a)
  it is made to or directed at only those recipients whom the firm has taken reasonable steps to establish are persons in the middle column of the table; and13
2. (b)
  where the third column of the table refers to the need for a preliminary assessment of suitability, that assessment is undertaken before the promotion is made to or directed at the recipient13.
(4)
A firm may rely on more than one exemption in relation to the same invitation or inducement.

(5)

Title of Exemption	Promotion to:	Promotion of a non-mainstream pooled investment which is:
1. Replacement products and rights issues	A person who already participates in, owns, holds rights to or interests in, a non-mainstream pooled investment that is being liquidated or wound down or which is undergoing a rights issue. [See Note 1.]	1. A non-mainstream pooled investment which is intended by the operator or manager to absorb or take over the assets of that non-mainstream pooled investment, or which is being offered by the operator or manager of that non-mainstream pooled investment as an alternative to cash on its liquidation; or 2. Securities offered by the existing non-mainstream pooled investment as part of a rights issue.
2. Certified high net worth investors	An individual6 who meets the requirements set out in COBS 4.12.6 R, or a person (or persons) legally empowered to make investment decisions on behalf of such individual6.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment the firm considers is likely to be suitable for that individual6, based on a preliminary assessment of the client's profile and objectives. [See COBS 4.12.5G (2).]
3. Enterprise and charitable funds	A person who is eligible to participate or invest in an arrangement constituted under: (1) the Church Funds Investment Measure 1958; (2) section 96 5or 100 of the Charities Act 2011; (3) section 25 of the Charities Act (Northern Ireland) 1964; (4) the Regulation on European Venture Capital Funds (‘EuVECAs’) or the RVECA Regulation (‘RVECAs’)11 12; or (5) the Regulation on European Social Entrepreneurship Funds (‘EuSEFs’) or the SEF Regulation (‘SEFs’)11 12.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment which is such an arrangement.
4. Eligible employees	An eligible employee, that is, a person who is: (1) an officer; (2) an employee; (3) a former officer or employee; or (4) a member of the immediate family of any of (1) - (3), of an employer which is (or is in the same group as) the firm, or which has accepted responsibility for the activities of the firm in carrying out the designated investment business in question.	1. A non-mainstream pooled investment, the instrument constituting which: A. restricts the property of the non-mainstream pooled investment, apart from cash and near cash, to: (1) (where the employer is a company) shares in and debentures of the company or any other connected company; [See Note 2.] (2) (in any case), any property, provided that the non-mainstream pooled investment takes the form of: (i) a limited partnership, under the terms of which the employer (or connected company) will be the unlimited partner and the eligible employees will be some or all of the limited partners; or (ii) a trust which the firm reasonably believes not to contain any risk that any eligible employee may be liable to make any further payments (other than charges) for investment transactions earlier entered into, which the eligible employee was not aware of at the time he entered into them; and B. (in a case falling within A(1) above) restricts participation in the non-mainstream pooled investment to eligible employees, the employer and any connected company. 2. Any non-mainstream pooled investment, provided that the participation of eligible employees is to facilitate their co-investment: (i) with one or more companies in the same group as their employer (which may include the employer); or (ii) with one or more clients of such a company.
5. Members of the Society of Lloyd’s	A person admitted to membership of the Society of Lloyd's or any person by law entitled or bound to administer his affairs.	A scheme in the form of a limited partnership which is established for the sole purpose of underwriting insurance business at Lloyd's.
6. Exempt persons	An exempt person (other than a person exempted only by section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)) if the financial promotion relates to a regulated activity in respect of which the person is exempt from the general prohibition.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment.
7. Non-retail clients	An eligible counterparty or a professional client.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment in relation to which the client is categorised as a professional client or eligible counterparty. [See Note 4.]
8. Certified sophisticated investors	An individual6 who meets the requirements set out in COBS 4.12.7 R, including an individual who is legally empowered (solely or jointly with others) to make investment decisions on behalf of another person who is the firm's client 6.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment.
9. Self-certified sophisticated investors	An individual6 who meets the requirements set out in COBS 4.12.8 R, including an individual who is legally empowered (solely or jointly with others) to make investment decisions on behalf of another person who is the firm's client 6.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment the firm considers is likely to be suitable for that client, based on a preliminary assessment of the client's profile and objectives. [See COBS 4.12.5G (2)]
10. Solicited advice	Any person.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment, provided the communication meets all of the following requirements: (a) the communication only amounts to a financial promotion because it is a personal recommendation on a non-mainstream pooled investment; (b) the personal recommendation is made following a specific request by that client for advice on the merits of investing in the non-mainstream pooled investment; and (c) the client has not previously received a financial promotion or any other communication from the firm (or from a person connected to the firm) which is intended to influence the client in relation to that non-mainstream pooled investment. [See Note 3.]
11. Excluded communications	Any person.	Any non-mainstream pooled investment, provided the financial promotion is an excluded communication.[See COBS 4.12.12G, COBS 4.12.13G and COBS 4.12.13AG14.]
12. [deleted]11
13. US persons	A person who is classified as a United States person for tax purposes under United States legislation or who owns a US qualified retirement plan.	Any investment company registered and operated in the United States under the Investment Company Act 1940.

The following Notes explain certain words and phrases used in the table above.
Note 1	Promotion of non-mainstream pooled investments to a category of person includes any nominee company acting for such a person.
Note 2	A company is 'connected' with another company if: they are both in the same group; or one company is entitled, either alone or with another company in the same group, to exercise or control the exercise of a majority of the voting rights attributable to the share capital, which are exercisable in all circumstances at any general meeting of the other company or of its holding company.
Note 3	A person is connected with a firm if it acts as an introducer or appointed representative for that firm or if it is any other person, regardless of authorisation status, who has a relevant business relationship with the firm.
Note 4	In deciding whether a promotion is permitted under the rules of this section or under section 238 of the Act, firms may use the client categorisation regime that applies to business other than MiFID or equivalent third country business. (This is the case even if the firm will be carrying on a MiFID activity at the same time as or following the promotion.)

BIPRU 5.4.65R01/01/2021

[deleted]5

BIPRU 4.6.20R01/01/2021

(1) This rule, in accordance with BIPRU 4.3.57 R (4) (Definition of default), sets the exact number of days past due that a firm must abide by in the case of retail exposures.(2) For retail exposures to counterparts situated within the United Kingdom the number of days past due is 180 days with the exception of retail SME exposures. For these exposures the number is 90 days.(3) [deleted]2(4) For retail exposures to counterparts in a state outside the United Kingdom2 the number

Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8

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