Related provisions for SYSC 22.3.6

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MCOB 10A.3.3RRP
1In relation to a retirement interest-only mortgage where the firm chooses to provide an ESIS instead of an illustration, the period for which the credit is to be provided must be determined in accordance with MCOB 5.6.6R(4).
BIPRU 8.6.1DRRP
3If a groupundertaking proposes to establish a debt securities program for the issue of capital instruments which the firm intends to include within its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group5, it must:(1) notify the appropriate regulator of the establishment of the program; and(2) provide the information required by BIPRU 8.6.1BR (1) to (4); as soon as it becomes aware of the proposed establishment. The appropriate
CONC 2.8.2RRP
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted rapidly and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement
ICOBS 7.2.10GRP
A consumer's notice to cancel a distance contract may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract. This is unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract. (See the Distance Marketing Regulations.) Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
COBS 4.2.4GRP
A firm should ensure that a financial promotion:(1) for a product or service that places a client's capital at risk makes this clear;(2) that quotes a yield figure gives a balanced impression of both the short and long term prospects for the investment;(3) that promotes an investment or service whose charging structure is complex, or in relation to which the firm will receive more than one element of remuneration, includes the information necessary to ensure that it is fair, clear
COBS 15.5.4GRP
When a consumer cancels a distance contract under this chapter, his notice may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the main contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract (see regulation 12 of the Distance Marketing Regulations). Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
SYSC 18.4.5GRP
The whistleblowers’ champion:(1) should have a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources (including access to independent legal advice and training) and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility; (2) need not have a day-to-day operational role handling disclosures from whistleblowers; and(3) may be based anywhere provided he can perform his function effectively.
ICOBS 6.1.13RRP
(1) If a policy is bought by a consumer in connection with other goods or services a firm must, before conclusion of the contract, disclose its premium separately from any other prices and whether buying the policy is compulsory.(2) In the case of a distance contract, disclosure of whether buying the policy is compulsory may be made in accordance with the timing requirements under the distance communication rules (see ICOBS 3.1.8 R, ICOBS 3.1.14 R and ICOBS 3.1.15 R).(3) 2This
SUP 16.2.1GRP
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FCA1 needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FCA1 to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.777(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to disclose to the FCA1 appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. The reporting
MCOB 6.1.4RRP
In relation to a lifetime mortgage3, this chapter, MCOB 6, is modified by MCOB 9 (Equity release3: product disclosure).233
PRIN 3.2.3RRP
Subject to PRIN 3.2.4R,8Principles 3, 4 and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the FCA5) 11 (and this chapter) also:(1) apply to firms10 with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities (for Principle 3 this is only in a prudential context); and(2) for firms and other persons that are subject to the Principles,10 take into account any activity of other members of a group of which the firm is a member.
DTR 4.1.7RRP
(1) The6 financial statements must be audited in accordance with Part 16 of the Companies Act 20066.(2) [deleted]6(3) The audit report, signed by the person or persons responsible for auditing the financial statements must be disclosed in full to the public together with the annual financial report.[Note: article 4(4) of the TD](4) An issuer which is a UK-traded third country company6 within the meaning of section 1241 of the Companies Act 2006 must ensure that the person who
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

An exchange5 operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement Chapter 1 of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive—5

3

(i)

as they have effect on 1 December 20216, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act; and5

(ii)

as amended from time to time, in all other cases;5

(b)

any EU regulation originally made under Chapter 1 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is retained direct EU legislation, or any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under those provisions on or after IP completion day;5

3

which are applicable to a market operator35operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity5;

(b)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits.5

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating an SME growth market5 (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph as they have effect on IP completion day5.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading5.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under—5

(a)

section 11.2A of the Conduct of Business sourcebook;5

(b)

Articles 64 to 66 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 of 25 April 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards organisational requirements and operating conditions for investment firms and defined terms for the purposes of that Directive;5

(c)

[deleted]6

5

(d)

[deleted]6

5

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as they have effect on 1 December 20216 as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

5

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(21) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.
COBS 6.1C.16RRP
A firm must disclose its charging structure to an employer in writing, in good time before giving advice, or providing services, to the employer in connection with a group personal pension scheme or group stakeholder pension scheme.
ICOBS 4.1.4GRP
If a firm goes further than putting a customer in contact with another person (for example, by advising the customer4 on a particular policy available from the firm) the full status disclosure requirements will apply.
MCOB 6.5.6RRP
If a firm makes an offer to a consumer2 with a view to entering into a regulated mortgage contract which is a distance contract, it must provide the consumer2 with the following information with the offer document:232(1) [deleted]5(2) any contractual clause on law applicable to the regulated mortgage contract or on competent court, or both;(3) the language in which the contract is supplied and in which the firm will communicate during the course of the regulated mortgage contract;
EG 8.5.2RP
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
MCOB 2.3.8GRP
(1) Quantification of any material inducement offered by the mortgage lender or reversion provider2 supports the disclosure requirements elsewhere in MCOB. Further guidance on the disclosure of any inducement in cash terms is provided in MCOB 5.6.118 G for regulated mortgage contracts other than lifetime mortgages, MCOB 9.4.124 G for lifetime mortgages and MCOB 9.4.173 G for home reversion plans.2(1A) Quantification of any material inducement offered by a SRB agreement provider
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
DISP 3.5.9RRP
15The Ombudsman may:(1) exclude evidence that would otherwise be admissible in a court or include evidence that would not be admissible in a court;(2) accept information in confidence (so that only an edited version, summary or description is disclosed to the other party) where he considers it appropriate;(3) reach a decision on the basis of what has been supplied and take account of the failure by a party to provide information requested; and(4) treat the complaint as withdrawn