Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1

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DISP 2.3.2-AGRP
1132In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:(1) a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and(2) a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission
DISP 2.3.2CGRP
8As a result of section 404B(11) of the Act, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction a complaint from a complainant who:(1) is not satisfied with a redress determination made by a respondent under a consumer redress scheme; or(2) considers that a respondent has failed to make a redress determination in accordance with a consumer redress scheme.
INSPRU 7.1.93GRP
A firm should not expect the appropriate regulator to accept as adequate any particular model that the firm develops or that the results from the model are automatically reflected in any individual capital guidance given to the firm for the purpose of determining adequate capital resources. However, the appropriate regulator will take into account the results of any sound and prudent model when giving individual capital guidance or considering applications for a waiver under sections
INSPRU 7.1.98GRP
The appropriate regulator expects most disagreements about the adequacy of capital will be resolved through further analysis and discussion. The appropriate regulator may consider the use of its powers under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) to assist in such circumstances. If the appropriate regulator and the firm still do not agree on an adequate level of capital, then the appropriate regulator may consider using its powers under section 55J of the Act to,
SYSC 4.4.1ARRP
7(-2) 13This section applies to:(a) a limited scope SMCR firm other than:14(i) a firm in SUP 10C Annex 1 7.10R (Table: Limited scope SMCR firms to which no controlled functions apply); and14(ii) a limited scope SMCR benchmark firm; and14(b) an authorised professional firm that is a core SMCR firm. (-1) 13The application of this section is further limited by the rest of this rule.(1) 13This section applies to an authorised professional firm as follows: (a) it only applies in respect
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person13?

8

Yes. They13 will be performing the limited scope function13.

However, the limited scope function does not apply to an EEA SMCR firm (except claims management firms) or an authorised professional firm that is a core SMCR firm.1313

171717178

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The FCA13 considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FCA13 would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas SMCR firm13 which is not an EEA SMCR firm13?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1 2.15R13).

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

13(3) SYSC 4.4 does not apply to such a firm if it does not have a branch in the United Kingdom.

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an EEA SMCR firm other than a claims management firm13?

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). 15

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) SYSC 4.4 does not apply to an EEA PTV firm if it does not have a branch in the United Kingdom15.

See also Question 1.15

1313

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FCA13 envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of independent,9 non-executive directors to be responsible (among other things) for overseeing the effectiveness9 of the audit process and the objectivity and independence of the external auditor9. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

[deleted]15

 13
PERG 7.3.3GRP
Under section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities), for an activity to be a regulated activity it must be carried on 'by way of business'. There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business test by including or excluding certain things. It has exercised this power (through the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities by Way of Business) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1177) (the Business Order), as amended from time to time7.
PERG 7.3.3AGRP
The result of the amendments made to the meaning of the business test in section 22 of the Act is that the test differs depending on the activity in question. Where the regulated activities of advising on investments and advising on a home finance transaction1 are concerned, the business test is not to be regarded as satisfied unless a person carries on the business of engaging in those activities. This is a narrower test than that of carrying on regulated activities by way of
SUP 12.6.6RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives:(1) does not carry on regulated activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act or (if the appointed representative is a firm with a limited permission) in breach of section 20(1) or (1A) of the Act9; and(2) carries on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility in a way which is, and is held out as being, clearly distinct from any of the
SUP 12.6.8GRP
SUP 10A applies certain controlled functions to an appointed representative of a firm. In the case of an appointed representative that also has a limited permission, SUP 10C may apply in addition to SUP 10A.19
DISP 1.11.7GRP
Each member of the Society is individually subject to the rules in this chapter as a result of the insurance market direction given in DISP 2.1.7 D23 under section 316 of the Act (Direction by a regulator).232323
DISP 1.11.21RRP
A contravention of DISP 1.11.13 R or DISP 1.11.14 R does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages) and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action.
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT, and section 261D(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the depositary and authorised fund manager of an ACS6. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give the6FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC,
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
SUP 3.10.8BGRP
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
SUP 3.10.13GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FCA. They do not apply to reports required by SUP 3.10 because of the specific provisions in SUP 3.10.12 R.
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
LR 8.6.5BGRP
7Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the employees of the person applying to be a sponsor whom it is proposed will perform sponsor services have no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the person applying to be a sponsor
LR 8.6.5CGRP
8Where a person wishes to apply for approval as a sponsor to provide a limited range of sponsor services, it may do so on the basis that the FCA will impose a limitation or restriction on its approval (in accordance with section 88 of the Act). In such circumstances, the FCA will assess whether the person satisfies LR 8.6.5R (2) and LR 8.6.5R (3) taking into consideration the sponsor services to which the approval, as formally limited or restricted by the FCA, will relate.
PERG 2.3.1GRP
Under section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities), for an activity to be a regulated activity it must be carried on 'by way of business'.
PERG 2.3.2GRP
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business element by including or excluding certain things. They have exercised this power (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities by Way of Business) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1177), as amended from time to time)12. The result is that the business element differs depending on the activity in question. This in part reflects certain differences in the nature of the activities:35553(1)
PERG 5.15.2GRP
[deleted]2
PERG 5.15.8GRP
[deleted]2
COLL 4.7.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must6 draw up a short document in English containing key investor information6 for investors:6(a) in each UCITS scheme which it manages (a key investor information document); and6(b) in each KII-compliant NURS which it manages (a NURS-KII document).6(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in the key investor information document and NURS-KII document6.(3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about
COLL 4.7.6GRP
(1) Section 90ZA of the Act (Liability for key investor information) provides that a person will not incur civil liability solely on the basis of the key investor information document, including any translation of it, unless it is misleading, inaccurate or inconsistent with the relevant parts of the prospectus.(2) Article 20 of the KII Regulation prescribes the wording of a warning to investors that must be included in the "practical information" section of the key investor information
PERG 8.21.16GRP
Article 68 applies where the financial promotion relates to securities which have not yet been admitted to trading but for which application has been or is to be made. It exempts a non-real time or a solicited real-time financial promotion which a relevant EEA market requires to be communicated before admission to trading can be granted. A relevant EEA market for this purpose is a market with its head office in an EEA State and which meets the conditions in Part I of5 Schedule
PERG 8.21.20GRP
Article 702 applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:2(1) listing particulars1; or21(2) supplementary listing particulars1; or21(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules – including part of such a prospectus or supplementary prospectus; or7162221(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by listing rules or Prospectus Rules.171Article 70 also applies to a non-real time financial promotion comprising
DEPP 6.5B.2GRP
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
DEPP 6.5B.3GRP
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
SUP 10C.9.4GRP
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10C.9.12GRP
Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions), the FCA may arrange with the PRA that, in agreed cases, the PRA may give approval without obtaining the consent of the FCA. No such arrangements are currently in force.
SUP App 3.6.6GRP
An insurance undertaking that effects contracts of insurance covering risks or commitments situated in another EEA State should comply with the notification procedures for the provision of services within that EEA State. The location of risks and commitments is found by reference to the rules set out in paragraph 6 of schedule 12 to the Act, which derive from article 13(13) and (14) of the Solvency II Directive.4 It may be appropriate for insurers to take legal advice as to how
SUP App 3.6.25GRP
(1) 2The FCA is5 of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:66(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or(b) an MTF or OTF5 operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,2the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's
SUP 16.3.14AGRP
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FCA28 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which
SUP 16.3.23GRP
When the FCA28 receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part 23 of the Act38 (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. (See SUP 2.2.4G38) 4949494949
SYSC 19D.3.68GRP
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enable the FCA to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision.(2) SYSC 19D.3.66R and SYSC 19D.3.67R (together with SYSC 19D Annex 1) are:(a) rules referred to in (1) that render void provisions of an agreement that contravene