Related provisions for SUP 15.8.14

321 - 333 of 333 items.

LR 16.4.3R28/09/2007

The interests of a single person or entity which exceeds 10% of the issued shares (calculated exclusive of treasury shares) of any class of share in the capital of the open-ended investment company must, so far as they are known to it, be notified to a RIS as soon as possible following the open-ended investment company becoming aware of those interests.

CASS 7A.2.2R26/07/2017

A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm;(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee2 in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may be) of the Act;2(3) on the coming into force of a requirement or requirements which, either separately or in combination:7(a) is or are for all client money held by the firm; and7(b) require the firm to take steps to cease holding all client money7; or(4) when the firm notifies7

COLL 5.2.10R01/04/2004

(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),

FEES 4.2.11R01/07/2019

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA 65

1 Fee payer	2 Fee payable	3 Due date	4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee
Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25 ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)	(1) Unless (2) applies, as37 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65.37 (2) Where a firm is paying a ring-fencing implementation fee, as specified in FEES 4 Annex 2BR.37	(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12 (2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7 (3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility 41, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10FEES 4 Annex 10R41 (Periodic fees for MTF and OTF41 operators). 7 7 64	Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order 32, the DRS Regulations 41 or the Electronic Money Regulations 12;9 or firm 9extends permission or its payment service activities9 16 67 9
Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA 64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.) 64	£1,15151 46 31 40 31	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23 (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event.51 23 64	Certificate issued to person by the51 FCA 64 under article 4054 of the Regulated Activities Order 46 64
Any manager of an AUT 23; 23	In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4		Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme 24
24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;	In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4
Any ACD of an ICVC; and	In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4
Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;	In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4	The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme 25
		The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme 25	Not applicable
AIFM of a UK ELTIF 33	In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33 (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33	The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation 33
Designated professional body	FEES 4 Annex 5	On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 23	Not applicable
UK recognised body	FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP 13 65	(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year 64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event 23 64	Recognition order is made. The modified11 66 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.13 11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66
ROIE 65 65	FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2	(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year 64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event. 23 64	Recognition order is made. The modified11 66 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66
A listed issuer 35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities 35. 3 3	FEES 4 Annex 14R35	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Listed issuer 3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules 3
A sponsor 35	FEES 4 Annex 14R35 31 10 12 23 23 31 12 10 2 31	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	35Approval of a35 sponsor 35 14 14 14
All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities 35. 6 6	FEES 4 Annex 14R35 29	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements 36 and transparency rules 6 29
29Any primary information provider	FEES 4 Annex 14R35	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	A person is approved as a primary information provider
6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives 10to the FCA 64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10 64 10	FEES 4 Annex 9 R	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Not applicable
15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.	FEES 4 Annex 11R	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year 64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R 64	A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond
26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year. (ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.	For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event	The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK
26A small registered UK AIFM	The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4		The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.
30			[deleted]41
45A third country legal representative	The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R	Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R	Not applicable
45A benchmark endorser	The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R	Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R	Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

SUP 10C.11.19G10/12/2018

Table: Examples5 of how the requirements for submitting statements of responsibilities work

1Example	Comments
(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5.	There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions. The combined document should be included with the application for approval.
(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function 5. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering reporting function. Both firms are SMCR firms 5.	There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm. This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group.
(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA.	The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions.
(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.	The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering reporting function 5. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.
(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.	The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function. The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.
(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition.	The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application. The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval.
(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.	The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering reporting function 5. The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions.
(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals. The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.	The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function. The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated.
(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm. Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering reporting function 5 and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director.	The answer to example (5) applies. The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that: (1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function; (2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function 5; and (3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function 5.
(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5. A then ceases to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 but continues to perform the executive director function.5	The firm must submit: (a) Form C for the money laundering reporting function 5; (b) Form J; and (c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function and reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function 5.
(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer.	The firm must submit: (a) Form C for the PRA function; (b) Form J; and (c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function 5. The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA.
(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm. The application is rejected.	The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval. If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones5 clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away. In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J. In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document.
(13) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5. Later, A is to be appointed as an executive director5 for the same firm. This will not result in any significant5 changes to A’s duties in the money laundering reporting function 5. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role in the money laundering reporting function 5 since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment as executive director5.	The answer for example (4) applies. The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties in the money laundering role as well as covering A’s appointment to perform the executive director function. It does not matter that the changes to A’s money laundering role5 are not significant.
(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change.	The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function. The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions. It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.
2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary 3 of firm X. Firm X is an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm 5 and firm3 Y is a UK SMCR firm 5. Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive director function 5. 3	There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm.
Note:5 The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D.5

1Example

Comments

(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5.

There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions.

The combined document should be included with the application for approval.

(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function 5. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering reporting function. Both firms are SMCR firms 5.

There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm.

This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group.

(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function.

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions.

(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering reporting function 5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition.

The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application.

The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval.

(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering reporting function 5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions.

(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals.

The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated.

(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm.

Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering reporting function 5 and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director.

The answer to example (5) applies.

The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that:

(1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function;

(2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function 5; and

(3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function 5.

(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function 5 and the money laundering reporting function 5.

A then ceases to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 but continues to perform the executive director function.5

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the money laundering reporting function 5;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function and reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function 5.

(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer.

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the PRA function;

(b) Form J; and

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA.

(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function 5 for the same firm.

The application is rejected.

The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval.

If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones5 clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away.

In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J.

In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document.

(13) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function 5. Later, A is to be appointed as an executive director5 for the same firm.

This will not result in any significant5 changes to A’s duties in the money laundering reporting function 5. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role in the money laundering reporting function 5 since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment as executive director5.

The answer for example (4) applies.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties in the money laundering role as well as covering A’s appointment to perform the executive director function. It does not matter that the changes to A’s money laundering role5 are not significant.

(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function 5. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions.

It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary 3 of firm X.

Firm X is an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm 5 and firm3 Y is a UK SMCR firm 5.

Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive director function 5.

There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm.

Note:5 The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D.5

CASS 7.11.47R01/06/2015

The firm must notify the FCA of its intention to effect any transfer of client money under either or both of CASS 7.11.42 R and CASS 7.11.44 R at least seven days before it transfers the client money in question.

LR App 1.1.121/07/2019

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the listing rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission or admission to listing	admission of securities to the official list .
admission to trading	admission of securities to trading on an RIE's market for listed securities.
advertisement	(as defined in the Prospectus Regulation) a communication with both of the following characteristics:53
	(a)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(b)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.
applicant	an issuer which is applying for admission of securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PR Regulation 53) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable there under; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
associate	(A)36 in relation to a director, substantial shareholder, or person exercising significant influence, who is an individual: 6
	(1)	that individual's spouse , civil partner 2or child (together "the individual's family");
	(2)	the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are related parties;
	(3)	any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able: (a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or (b) to appoint or remove directors 33 holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters;29 33
	29(4)	any partnership whether a limited partnership or limited liability partnership in which the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual’s family are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they hold or control or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be able to hold or control: (a) a voting interest greater than 30% in the partnership; or (b) at least 30% of the partnership.
	For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one director of the listed company, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those directors and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the director.
	(B)36 in relation to a substantial shareholder or person exercising significant influence, which is a company: 6
	(1)	any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;
	(2)	any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the substantial shareholder's or person exercising significant influence's directions or instructions;6 6 6
	(3)	any company in the capital of which the substantial shareholder or person exercising significant influence and any other companyunder paragraph (1) or (2) taken together, is (or would on the fulfilment of a condition or the occurrence of a contingency be) able to exercise power of the type described in paragraph (3)(a) or (b) above of this definition.6
	36(C) when used in the context of a controlling shareholder who is an individual:
	36(1)	that individual's spouse, civil partner or child (together "the individual's family");
	36(2)	the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are controlling shareholders);
	36(3)	any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able: (a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or (b) to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters;
	36(4)	any partnership whether a limited partnership or limited liability partnership in which the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they hold or control or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be able to hold or control: (a) a voting interest greater than 30% in the partnership; or (b) at least 30% of the partnership.
	36For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one controlling shareholder of the listed company, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those controlling shareholders and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the controlling shareholder.
	36(D) when used in the context of a controlling shareholder which is a company:
	36(1)	any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;
	36(2)	any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the controlling shareholder's directions or instructions;
	36(3)	any company in the capital of which the controlling shareholder and any other company under paragraph (1) or (2) taken together, is (or would on the fulfilment of a condition or the occurrence of a contingency be) able to exercise power of the type described in paragraph (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this definition.
authorised person	(in accordance with section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons)) one of the following:
	(a)	a person who has a Part 4A permission to carry on one or more regulated activities;
	(b)	an incoming EEA firm;
	(c)	an incoming Treaty firm;
	(d)	a UCITS qualifier;
	(e)	an ICVC;
	(f)	the Society of Lloyd's.13
bank	(a)	a firm with a Part 4A permission which includes accepting deposits, and: (i) which is a credit institution; or (ii) whosePart 4A permission includes a requirement that it comply with 4the rules in GENPRU and BIPRU relating to banks 4; but which is not a building society, a friendly society or a credit union;
	(b)	an EEA bank which is a full credit institution.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in article 8 of the Prospectus Regulation.53 29
29body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
book value of property	(in relation to a property company) the value of a property (which is not classified as a net current asset) before the deduction of mortgages or borrowings as shown in the company's latest annual report and accounts.
29break fee arrangement	an arrangement falling within the description in LR 10.2.6A R.
53	53
business day	(1)	(in relation to anything done or to be done in (including to be submitted to a place in) any part of the United Kingdom), any day which is not a Saturday or Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a bank holiday in that part of the United Kingdom;
	(2)	(in relation to anything done or to be done by reference to a market outside the United Kingdom) any day on which that market is normally open for business.
44	44
CARD	Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.
certificate representing certain securities	the investment specified in article 80 of the Regulated Activities Order (Certificates representing certain securities), which is in summary: a certificate or other instrument which confers contractual or property rights (other than rights consisting of options):
	(a)	in respect of any share, debenture, alternative debenture,19 government and public security or warrant held by a person other than the person on whom the rights are conferred by the certificate or instrument; and 19
	(b)	the transfer of which may be effected without requiring the consent of that person;
	but excluding any certificate or other instrument which confers rights in respect of two or more investments issued by different persons or in respect of two or more different government and public securities issued by the same person.
certificate representing debt securities	a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of debentures, alternative debentures,19 or government and public securities.
certificate representing equity securities	a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity securities.
certificate representing shares	a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity shares.30
charge	(in relation to securitised derivatives) means any payment identified under the terms and conditions of the securitised derivatives.
Chinese wall	an arrangement that requires information held by a person in the course of carrying on one part of its business to be withheld from, or not to be used for, persons with or for whom it acts in the course of carrying on another part of its business.
circular	any document issued to holders of listed securities including notices of meetings but excluding prospectuses, listing particulars, annual reports and accounts, interim reports, proxy cards and dividend or interest vouchers.
class	securities the rights attaching to which are or will be identical and which form a single issue or issues.
class 1 acquisition	a class 1 transaction that involves an acquisition by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.
class 1 circular	a circular relating to a class 1 transaction or a transaction which must comply with the requirements of a class 1 transaction 38.
class 1 disposal	a class 1 transaction that consists of a disposal by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.
class 1 transaction	a transaction classified as a class 1 transaction under LR 10.
class 2 transaction	a transaction classified as a class 2 transaction under LR 10 .29
class tests	the tests set out in LR 10 Annex 1(and for certain specialist companies, those tests as modified or added to by LR 10.7), which are used to determine how a transaction is to be classified for the purposes of the listing rules.
closed-ended	(in relation to investment entities) an investment company which is not an open-ended investment company.
5closed-ended investment fund	an entity:
	(a)	which is an undertaking with limited liability, including a company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership; and
	(b)	whose primary object is investing and managing its assets (including pooled funds contributed by holders of its listed securities):
		(i) in property of any description; and
		(ii) with a view to spreading investment risk.
43	43
COBS9	the Conduct of Business sourcebook, from 1 November 20079.
3Combined Code	in relation to an issuerthe Combined Code on Corporate Governance published in June 2008 by the Financial Reporting Council.18 18
company	any body corporate.
competent authority	(in relation to the functions referred to in Part VI of the Act):
	(a)	the authority designated under Schedule 8 to the Act (transfer of functions under Part VI (Official listing)) as responsible for performing those functions under the Act; for the time being the FCA in its capacity as such; or
	(b)	an authority exercising functions corresponding to those functions under the laws of another EEA State.
connected client	in relation to a sponsor or securities house, any client of the sponsor or securities house who is:
	(a)	a partner, director, employee or controller (as defined in section 422 of the Act) of the sponsor or securities house or of an undertaking described in paragraph (d);
	(b)	the spouse , civil partner 2or child of any individual described in paragraph (a);
	(c)	a person in his capacity as trustee of a private trust (other than a pension scheme or an employees' share scheme) the beneficiaries of which include any person described in paragraph (a) or (b); or
	(d)	an undertaking which in relation to the sponsor or securities house is a group undertaking.
connected person	(in DTR and LR in relation to a person discharging managerial responsibilities within an issuer) has the meaning given to “person closely associated” in article 3(1)(26) of the Market Abuse Regulation.43
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities (No 2001/34/EC).
constitution	memorandum and articles of association or equivalent constitutional document.
contingent liability investment	a derivative under the terms of which the client will or may be liable to make further payments (other than charges, and whether or not secured by margin) when the transaction falls to be completed or upon the earlier closing out of his position.
contract of significance	a contract which represents in amount or value (or annual amount or value) a sum equal to 1% or more, calculated on a group basis where relevant, of:
	(1)	in the case of a capital transaction or a transaction of which the principal purpose or effect is the granting of credit, the aggregate of the group's share capital and reserves; or
	(2)	in other cases, the total annual purchases, sales, payments or receipts, as the case may be, of the group.
36controlling shareholder	means any person who exercises or controls on their own or together with any person with whom they are acting in concert, 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company. For the purposes of calculating voting rights, the following voting rights are to be disregarded:49
	(1)	any voting rights which such a person exercises (or controls the exercise of) independently in its capacity as: bare trustee, investment manager, collective investment undertaking or a long-term insurer in respect of its linked long-term business if no associate of that person interferes by giving direct or indirect instructions, or in any other way, in the exercise of such voting rights (except to the extent any such person confers or collaborates with such an associate which also acts in its capacity as investment manager, collective investment undertaking or long-term insurer); or49
	(2)	any voting rights which a person may hold (or control the exercise of) solely in relation to the direct performance, by way of business, of:49
		(a)	underwriting the issue or sale of securities; or49
		(b)	placing securities, where the person provides a firm commitment to acquire any securities which it does not place; or 49
		(c)	acquiring securities from existing shareholders or the issuer pursuant to an agreement to procure third-party purchases of securities;49
	and where the conditions below are satisfied:49
	(i)	the activities set out in (2)(a) to (c) are performed in the ordinary course of business;49
	(ii)	the securities to which the voting rights attach are held for a consecutive period of 5 trading days or less, beginning with the first trading day on which the securities are held;49
	(iii)	the voting rights are not exercised within the period the securities are held; and49
	(iv)	no attempt is made directly or indirectly by the person to intervene in (or attempt to intervene in) or exert (or attempt to exert) influence on the management of the issuer within the period the securities are held.49
convertible securities	a security which is:
	(1)	convertible into, or exchangeable for, other securities; or
	(2)	accompanied by a warrant 33 or option 33 to subscribe for or purchase other securities. 33 33
deal	a dealing transaction;
dealing	(in accordance with paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 to the Act (Regulated activities)) buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting investments or offering or agreeing to do so, either as principal or as an43 agent, including, in the case of an investment which is a contract of insurance, carrying out the contract.
debt security	debentures, alternative debentures,19 debenture stock, loan stock, bonds, certificates of deposit or any other instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness.7
6deferred bonus	any arrangement pursuant to the terms of which an employee or director may receive a bonus (including cash or any security) in respect of service and/or performance in a period not exceeding the length of the relevant financial year notwithstanding that the bonus may, subject only to the person remaining a director or employee of the group, be receivable by the person after the end of the period to which the award relates.
6defined benefit scheme	in relation to a director, means a pension scheme which is not a money purchase scheme.
depositary	a person that issues certificates representing certain securities that have been admitted to listing 33 or are the subject of an application for admission to listing. 33
7 DEPP	the Decision Procedure and Penalties manual
designated professional body	a professional body designated by the Treasury under section 326 of the Act (Designation of professional bodies) for the purposes of Part XX of the Act (Provision of Financial Services by Members of the Professions); as at 21 June 2001 the following professional bodies have been designated in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1226): (a) The Law Society (England and Wales); (b) The Law Society of Scotland; (c) The Law Society of Northern Ireland; (d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales; (e) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Scotland; (f) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in Ireland; (g) The Association of Chartered Certified Accountants; (h) The Institute of Actuaries.
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
43 disclosure guidance	the guidance contained in DTR 1 to 3
disclosure requirements 43 16 16	articles 17, 18 and 19 of the Market Abuse Regulation.43 16 16
document	any piece of recorded information, including (in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation)) information recorded in any form; in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include references to producing a copy of the information in legible form.
document viewing facility	a location identified on the FCA website where the public can inspect documents referred to in the listing rules as being documents to be made available at the document viewing facility.
DTR	the Disclosure Guidance43 and Transparency Rules39 sourcebook containing the disclosure guidance 43, transparency rules,39 corporate governance rules and the rules relating to primary information providers.16 39 16 39
39E-Commerce Directive	the Council Directive of 8 June 2002 on legal aspects of information society services, in particular electronic commerce, in the Internal Market (No 2000/31/EC).
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
7 EG	the Enforcement Guide
employee	an individual:
	(a)	who is employed or appointed by a person in connection with that person's business, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or
	(b)	whose services, under an arrangement between that person and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of that person;
	but excluding an appointed representative or, where applicable, a tied agent 9 of that person.
employees' share scheme	has the same meaning as in section 116615 of the Companies Act 200615.7 6 6 8 6 6 8
equity security	equity shares and securities convertible into equity shares.
equity share20	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
53 6	53 38
38ESMA	European Securities and Markets Authority.
ESMA Prospectus Recommendations40 40	the ESMA update of the CESR recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).40 40
exercise notice	(in relation to securitised derivatives), a document that notifies the issuer of a holder's intention to exercise its rights under the securitised derivative.
exercise price	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the price stipulated by the issuer at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying instrument from or to the issuer.
exercise time	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the time stipulated by the issuer by which the holder must exercise their rights.
expiration date	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the date stipulated by the issuer on which the holder's rights in respect of the securitised derivative ends.
27external management company	(in LR and PRR 53) has the meaning in PRR 5.3.3R53. (i.e., in relation to an issuer that is a company which is not a collective investment undertaking, a person who is appointed by the issuer (whether under a contract of service, a contract for services or any other commercial arrangement) to perform functions that would ordinarily be performed by officers of the issuer and to make recommendations in relation to strategic matters).
extraction	(in relation to mineral companies), includes mining, quarrying or similar activities and the reworking of mine tailings or waste dumps.
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
final terms	the document containing the final terms of each issue which is intended to be listed.
financial information table	financial information presented in a tabular form that covers the reporting period set out in LR 13.5.13 R in relation to the entities set out in LR 13.5.14 R, and to the extent relevant LR 13.5.17A R30. 30
group	(1)	except in LR 6.4.3G, LR 6.5.3G, LR 6.14.3R, LR 6.14.4G49, LR 8.7.8R (10),LR 14.2.2 R, LR 14.2.3A G, LR 18.2.8 R and LR 18.2.9A G36, 6an issuer and its subsidiary undertakings (if any); and 36 12 36 36
	(2)	in LR 6.4.3G, LR 6.5.3G, LR 6.14.3R, LR 6.14.4G49, LR 8.7.8R (10), 6LR 14.2.2 R, LR 14.2.3A G, LR 18.2.8 R and LR 18.2.9A G36as defined in section 421 of the Act. 36 12 36 36
guarantee	(in relation to securitised derivatives), either:
	(1)	a guarantee given in accordance with LR 19.2.2 R (3)(if any); or
	(2)	any other guarantee of the issue of securitised derivatives.
guidance	guidance given by the FCA under the Act.
Handbook	the FCA's Handbook of rules and guidance.28
28holding company	(as defined in section 1159(1) of the Companies Act 2006 (Meaning of "subsidiary" etc) (in relation to another body corporate ("S")) a body corporate which:
	(a)	holds a majority of the voting rights in S; or
	(b)	is a member of S and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of its board of directors; or
	(c)	is a member of S and controls alone, under an agreement with other shareholders and members, a majority of the voting rights in S.
Home Member State or Home State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive.
Host Member State or Host State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home Member State.
IAS	International Accounting Standards.39
36independent director	a director whom an applicant 49 or listed company has determined to be independent under the UK Corporate Governance Code.
36independent shareholder	any person entitled to vote on the election of directors of a listed company that is not a controlling shareholder of the listed company.
39information society service	an information society service, as defined by article 2(a) of the E-Commerce Directive and article 1(2) of the Technical Standards and Regulations Directive (98/34/EC), which is in summary any service normally provided for remuneration, at a distance, by means of electronic equipment for the processing (including the digital compression) and storage of data at the individual request of a service recipient.
inside information	as described in article 7 of the Market Abuse Regulation 45.
43	43
intermediaries offer	a marketing of securities already or not yet in issue, by means of an offer by, or on behalf of, the issuer to intermediaries for them to allocate to their own clients.
International Accounting Standards	international accounting standards within the meaning of EC Regulation No 1606/2002 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 19 July 2002 as adopted from time to time by the European Commission in accordance with that Regulation.
in the money	(in relation to securitised derivatives):
	(a)	where the holder has the right to buy the underlying instrument or instruments from the issuer, when the settlement price is greater than the exercise price; or
	(b)	where the holder has the right to sell the underlying instrument or instruments to the issuer, when the exercise price is greater than the settlement price.5
10investment entity	an entity whose primary object is investing and managing its assets with a view to spreading or otherwise managing investment risk.
investment manager	a person who, on behalf of a client, manages investments and is not a wholly-owned subsidiary of the client.5 5
investment trust	a company which: 40
	(a)	is approved by the Commissioners for HM Revenue and Customs33 under sections 1158 and 1159 of the Corporation Tax Act 201040 (or, in the case of a newly formed company, has declared its intention to conduct its affairs so as to obtain such approval); or 33 40
	(b)	is resident in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom and would qualify for such approval if resident in the United Kingdom.
issuer	any company or other legal person or undertaking (including a public sector issuer), any class of whose securities has been admitted to listing 33 or is the subject of an application for admission to listing 33. 33 33
29limited liability partnership	(a) a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000; (b) a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
list of sponsors	the list of sponsors maintained by theFCA in accordance with section 88(3)(a) of the Act.
listed	admitted to the official list maintained by the FCA in accordance with section 74 of the Act.
listed company	a company that has any class of its securities listed.
listing particulars	(in accordance with section 79(2) of the Act), a document in such form and containing such information as may be specified in listing rules.
listing rules	(in accordance with sections 73A(1) and 1673A(2) of the Act) rules 16relating to admission to the official list. 16 16
London Stock Exchange	London Stock Exchange Plc.
long-term incentive scheme	any arrangement (other than a retirement benefit plan, a deferred bonus or any other arrangement that is an element of an executive director's remuneration package) which may involve the receipt of any asset (including cash or any security) by a director or employee of the group:
	(1)	which includes one or more conditions in respect of service and/or performance to be satisfied over more than one financial year; and
	(2)	pursuant to which the group may incur (other than in relation to the establishment and administration of the arrangement) either cost or a liability, whether actual or contingent.
LR	the sourcebook containing the listing rules.29
45
major subsidiary undertaking	a subsidiary undertaking that represents 25% or more of the aggregate of the gross assets or profits (after deducting all charges except taxation) of the group.
45
43 Market Abuse Regulation	Regulation (EU) No 596/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 April 2014 on market abuse (market abuse regulation) and repealing Directive 2003/6/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council46 and Commission Directives 2003/124/EC, 2003/125/EC and 2004/72/EC. 45
member	(in relation to a profession) a person who is entitled to practise that profession and, in practising it, is subject to the rules of the relevant designated professional body, whether or not he is a member of that body.
mineral company	a company or group, whose principal activity is, or is planned to be, the extraction of mineral resources (which may or may not include exploration for mineral resources).
mineral expert's report	a competent person's36 report prepared in accordance with paragraph 133 of36 the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations.40 CESR recommendations 30 40
mineral resources	include metallic and non-metallic ores, mineral concentrates, industrial minerals, construction aggregates, mineral oils, natural gases, hydrocarbons and solid fuels including coal.
miscellaneous securities20	securities which are not:
	(a)	shares; or
	(b)	debt securities; or
	(c)	asset backed securities; or
	(d)	certificates representing debt securities; or
	(e)	convertible securities which convert to debt securities; or
	(f)	convertible securities which convert to equity securities; or
	(g)	convertible securities which are exchangeable for securities of another company; or
	(h)	certificates representing certain securities; or
	(i)	securitised derivatives.
43	43
30modified report 30	an accountant's or 30auditor's report:
	(a)	in which the opinion is modified; or30 30
	(b)	which contains an emphasis-of-matter paragraph.30 30
6money purchase scheme	in relation to a director, means a pension scheme under which all of the benefits that may become payable to or in respect of the director are money purchase benefits.
net annual rent	(in relation to a property) the current income or income estimated by the valuer:
	(1)	ignoring any special receipts or deductions arising from the property;
	(2)	excluding Value Added Tax and before taxation (including tax on profits and any allowances for interest on capital or loans); and
	(3)	after making deductions for superior rents (but not for amortisation) and any disbursements including, if appropriate, expenses of managing the property and allowances to maintain it in a condition to command its rent.
49
non-EEA State	a country or state that is not an EEA State.
OECD state guaranteed issuer	an issuer of debt securities whose obligations in relation to those securities33 have been guaranteed by a member state of the OECD. 33
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer for sale	an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, a third party to purchase securities of the issuer already in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).
offer for subscription	an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, an issuer to subscribe for securities of the issuer not yet in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in the Prospectus Regulation) a communication to persons in any form and by any means, presenting sufficient information on the terms of the offer and the securities to be offered, so as to enable an investor to decide to purchase or subscribe for those securities. This definition also applies to the placing of securities through financial intermediaries.53
	53	53
		53
		53
	53	53
	53	53
	53	53
	53
offeror	(a)	in LR 5.2.10 R to LR 5.2.11D R36, an offeror as defined in the Takeover Code; and
	(b)	elsewhere in LR, a person 36who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public. 36
official list	the list maintained by the FCA in accordance with section 74(1) of the Act for the purposes of Part VI of the Act.
open-ended investment company33 33	as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies).
open offer	an invitation to existing securities holders to subscribe or purchase securities in proportion to their holdings, which is not made by means of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document).31
31operational objectives	as defined in section 1B(3) of the Act.
option	the investment, specified in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order (Options), which is an option to acquire or dispose of: (a) a designated investment (other than a P2P agreement,37 an option); or (b) currency of the United Kingdom or of any other country or territory; or (c) palladium, platinum, gold or silver; or (d) an option to acquire or dispose of an option specified in (a), (b) or (c).
overseas	outside the United Kingdom.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
overseas investment exchange	an investment exchange which has neither its head office nor its registered office in the United Kingdom.
parent undertaking	as defined in section 116215 of the Companies Act 200615. 6 6 8 6 6 8
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act) rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
53	prospectus directive.53
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission
percentage ratio	(in relation to a transaction) the figure, expressed as a percentage, that results from applying a calculation under a class test 22 to the transaction. 22
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporate (that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
person discharging managerial responsibilities	as defined in article 3(1)(25) of the Market Abuse Regulation 45.
person exercising significant influence	in relation to a listed company, a person or entity which exercises significant influence over that listed company. 6
placing	a marketing of securities already in issue but not listed or not yet in issue, to specified persons or clients of the sponsor or any securities house assisting in the placing, which does not involve an offer to the public or to existing holders of the issuer's securities generally.

preference share	a share conferring preference as to income or return of capital which does not form part of the equity share capital of a company. 20
16premium listing	(a)	in relation to equity shares 20 (other those of a closed-ended investment fund or of an open-ended investment company or of a sovereign controlled commercial company that is required to comply with the requirements in LR 2150), means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with those requirements in LR 6 (Additional requirements for premium listing (commercial company)) and the20 other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;
	(b)	in relation to equity shares 20 of a closed-ended investment fund, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 15 (Closed-Ended Investment Funds: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;
	(c)	in relation to equity shares 20 of an open-ended investment company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with LR 16 (Open-ended investment companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing;50
	(d)	in relation to equity shares of a sovereign controlled commercial company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 (Sovereign controlled commercial companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing; and50
	(e)	in relation to certificates representing shares of a sovereign controlled commercial company, means a listing where the issuer is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 (Sovereign controlled commercial companies: Premium listing) and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to such securities with a premium listing.50
premium listing (commercial company)	a premium listing of equity shares 21 (other than those of a closed-ended investment fund or of an open-ended investment company or of a sovereign controlled commercial company that is required to comply with the requirements in LR 2150). 21
50 premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company)	a premium listing of:
	(a)	equity shares (other than those of a closed-ended investment fund or of an open-ended investment company); or
	(b)	certificates representing shares,
	where the issuer of the equity shares or, in the case of certificates representing shares, the issuer of the equity shares which the certificates represent is a sovereign controlled commercial company and is required to comply with the requirements in LR 21 and other requirements in the listing rules that are expressed to apply to securities in this category.
premium listing (investment company)	a premium listing of equity shares 21 of a closed-ended investment fund or of an open-ended investment company.39 21
39primary information provider	a person approved by the FCA under section 89P of the Act.
probable reserves	(1)	in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which are not yet proven but which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 50% chance of being produced; and
	(2)	in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured and/or indicated mineral resources, which are not yet proven but of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination and under specified economic conditions.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PR Regulation 53) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PR Regulation 53) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
43	43 33 33
property	freehold, heritable or leasehold property.
property company	a company primarily engaged in property 33 activities including: 33
	(1)	the holding of properties (directly or indirectly) for letting and retention as investments;
	(2)	the development of properties for letting and retention as investments;
	(3)	the purchase and development of properties for subsequent sale; or
	(4)	the purchase of land for development properties for retention as investments.5
property valuation report	a property valuation report prepared by an independent expert in accordance with:6 6
	(1)	for an issuer incorporated in the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man, the Appraisal and Valuation Standards (5th edition) issued by the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors; or6
	(2)	for an issuer incorporated in any other place, either the standards referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition or the International Valuation Standards (7th edition) issued by the International Valuation Standards Committee.6
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
53	53
prospectus rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.33 33
proven reserves	(1)	in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 90% chance of being produced; and
	(2)	in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured mineral resources of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination, and under specified economic conditions.
53 PRR	the Prospectus Regulation Rules sourcebook.
53 PR Regulation	Regulation number 2019/980 of the European Commission.
public international body	the African Development bank, the Asian Development Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank6, the European Atomic Energy Community, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Company for the Financing of Railroad Stock, the EU,17 the European Investment Bank, the Inter-American Development bank, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Monetary Fund, the Nordic Investment bank. 6 17 17
public sector issuer	states and their regional and local authorities, state monopolies, state finance organisations, public international bodies, statutory bodies and OECD state guaranteed issuers.
recognised scheme	a scheme recognised under:
	(a)	section 264 of the Act (Schemes constituted in other EEA States); or
	(b)	[deleted]35 35
	(c)	section 272 of the Act (Individually recognised overseas schemes).
registration document	a registration document referred to in article 6(3) of the Prospectus Regulation 53.
Regulated Activities Order	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (SI 2001/544).9
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments -33 in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules -33in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with47 Title III of MiFID.9 [Note: article 4(1)(21)47 of MiFID]33
regulatory information service or RIS	(a) a primary information provider; or (b) an incoming information society service that has its establishment in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom and that disseminates regulated information in accordance with the minimum standards set out in article 12 of the TD implementing Directive.41 (c) [deleted]41 39 39 41 41
related party	as defined in LR 11.1.4 R.
related party circular	a circular relating to a related party transaction.
related party transaction	as defined in LR 11.1.5 R.
retail securitised derivative	a securitised derivative which is not a specialist securitised derivative; in this definition, a "specialist securitised derivative" is a securitised derivative which, in accordance with the listing rules, is required to be admitted to listing with a clear statement on any disclosure document that the issue is intended for a purchase by only investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
reverse takeover	a transaction classified as a reverse takeover under LR 5.6.28 28
RIE	recognised investment exchange.
rights issue	an offer to existing security holders to subscribe or purchase further securities in proportion to their holdings made by means of the issue of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document) which may be traded (as “nil paid” rights) for a period before payment for the securities is due.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act, including: (a) a Principle; and (b) an evidential provision.
53 33 33	53
scientific research based company
securities note	a securities note referred to in article 6(3) of the Prospectus Regulation 53.
securitised derivative	an option or contract for differences which, in either case, is listed under LR 19 (including such an option or contract for differences 33 which is also a debenture). 33
security	(in accordance with section 102A of the Act) anything which has been, or may be admitted to the official list.
settlement price	(in relation to securitised derivatives), the reference price or prices of the underlying instrument or instruments stipulated by the issuer for the purposes of calculating its obligations to the holder.
shadow director	as in sub-paragraph (b) of the definition of director in section 417(1) of the Act.
share	(in accordance with section 540(1)15 of the Companies Act 200615) a share in the share capital of a company, and includes: 6 6 8 15 6 6 8 15
	(a)	stock (except where a distinction between shares and stock is express or implied); and
	(b)	preference shares.
49 shell company	as defined in LR 5.6.5AR.
specialist investor	an investor who is particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
specialist securities	securities which, because of their nature, are normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
specialist securitised derivative	a securitised derivative which because of its nature is normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.
specified investment	any of the following investments specified in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified Investments):
	(a)	deposit (article 74);
	(aa)	electronic money (article 74A);
	(b)	contract of insurance (article 75); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) general insurance contract; (ii) long-term insurance contract;
		and then further sub-divided into classes of contract of insurance;
	(c)	share (article 76);
	(d)	debenture (article 77);19
	(da)	alternative debenture (article 77A);19
	(e)	government and public security (article 78);
	(f)	warrant (article 79);
	(g)	certificate representing certain securities (article 80);
	(h)	unit (article 81);
	(i)	stakeholder pension scheme (article 82);24
	24(ia)	emissions auction product (article 82A);
	(j)	option (article 83); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) option (excluding a commodity option and an option on a commodity future); (ii) commodity option and an option on a commodity future;
	(k)	future (article 84); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) future (excluding a commodity future and a rolling spot forex contract); (ii) commodity future; (iii) rolling spot forex contract;
	(l)	contract for differences (article 85); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into: (i) contract for differences (excluding a spread bet and a rolling spot forex contract); (ii) spread bet; (iii) rolling spot forex contract;
	(m)	underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(1));
	(n)	membership of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(2));
	(o)	funeral plan contract (article 87);
	(oa)	regulated mortgage contract (article 61(3);
23	(ob)	home reversion plan (article 63B(3));
23	(oc)	home purchase plan (article 63F(3));
23	(od)	regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 63J(3));
	(p)	rights to or interests in investments (article 89).
sponsor	a person approved, under section 88 of the Act by the FCA, as a sponsor.38
38sponsor declaration	a declaration submitted by a sponsor to the FCA as required under LR 8.4.3 R (Application for listing), LR 8.4.9 R (Further application for listing), LR 8.4.13 R (Production of circular) or LR 8.4.14 R (Transfer between listing category).
12sponsor service	a service relating to a matter referred to in LR 8.2 that a sponsor provides or is requested or appointed to provide including32 preparatory work that a sponsor may undertake before a decision is taken as to whether or not it will act as sponsor for a listed 32 company or applicant 33 or in relation to a particular transaction, and including all the sponsor's communications with the FCA 33 in connection with the service32. But nothing in this definition is to be taken as requiring a sponsor when requested32 to agree to act as a sponsor for a company or in relation to a transaction. 32 32 33
standard listing	in relation to securities, means a listing that is not a premium listing.
20 standard listing (shares)	a standard listing of shares other than preference shares that are specialist securities.
state finance organisation	a legal person other than a company:
	(1)	which is a national of an EEA State;
	(2)	which is set up by or pursuant to a special law;
	(3)	whose activities are governed by that law and consist solely of raising funds under state control through the issue of debt securities;
	(4)	which is financed by means of the resources they have raised and resources provided by the EEA State; and
	(5)	the debt securities issued by it are considered by the law of the relevant EEA State as securities issued or guaranteed by that state.
state monopoly	a company or other legal person which is a national of an EEA State and which:
	(1)	in carrying on its business benefits from a monopoly right granted by an EEA state; and
	(2)	is set up by or pursuant to a special law or whose borrowings are unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by an EEA state or one of the federated states of an EEA state.
subsidiary undertaking	as defined in section 116215 of the Companies Act 200615. 6 6 8 15 6 6 8 15
substantial shareholder	as defined in LR 11.1.4A R.25 6 6 25
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
SUP	the Supervision manual.
supplementary listing particulars	(in accordance with section 81(1) of the Act), supplementary listing particulars containing details of the change or new matter.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
Takeover Code	the City Code on Takeovers and Mergers issued by the Takeover Panel.
target	the subject of a class 1 transaction or reverse takeover 28.
tender offer	an offer by a company to purchase all or some of a class of its listed equity securities at a maximum or fixed price (that may be established by means of a formula) that is: 20
	(1)	communicated to all holders of that class by means of a circular or advertisement in two national newspapers;
	(2)	open to all holders of that class on the same terms for at least 7 days; and
	(3)	open for acceptance by all holders of that class pro rata to their existing holdings.25
25trading day	a day included in the calendar of trading days published by the FCA at www.fca.org.uk.33 33
43 14	43
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 9, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 9
26transparency rules	in accordance with sections 73A(1) and 89A of the Act, rules relating to the notification and dissemination of information in respect of issuers of transferable securities and relating to major shareholdings.
treasury shares	shares which meet the conditions set out in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection 724(5) of the Companies Act 2006.15 6 6 8 6 6 8 15
trust deed	a trust deed or equivalent document securing or constituting debt securities.
UK	United Kingdom.
18 UK Corporate Governance Code	the UK Corporate Governance Code published in April 2016 48 by the Financial Reporting Council, available at: https://www.frc.org.uk/directors/corporate-governance-and-stewardship/uk-corporate-governance-code 48. 40 40 42 40
underlying instrument	(in relation to securitised derivatives) means either:
	(1)	if the securitised derivative is an option or debt security with the characteristics of an option, any of the underlying investments listed in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order; or
	(2)	if the securitised derivative is a contract for differences or debt security with the characteristics of a contract for differences, any factor by reference to which a profit or loss under article 85 of the Regulated Activities Order can be calculated.
53 universal registration document	a universal registration document referred to in article 9 of the Prospectus Regulation.
unrecognised scheme	a collective investment scheme which is neither a recognised scheme nor a scheme that is constituted as an authorised unit trust scheme or an authorised contractual scheme.34
vendor consideration placing	a marketing, by or on behalf of vendors, of securities that have been allotted as consideration for an acquisition.
venture capital trust	a company which is, or which is seeking to become, approved as a venture capital trust under section 842AA of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988.
warrant	the investment, specified in article 79 of the Regulated Activities Order (Instruments giving entitlements to investments), which is in summary: a warrant or other instrument entitling the holder to subscribe for a share, debenture, alternative debenture 19 or government and public security.
50 sovereign controlled commercial company	an issuer in which a State exercises or controls 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of that company.
50 sovereign controlling shareholder	(in relation to a company with or applying for a listing of equity shares or certificates representing shares in the category of premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company)) a State which exercises or controls 30% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company.
50 State	means:
	(a)	the sovereign or other head of a State in their public capacity;
	(b)	the government of a State;
	(c)	a department of a State; or
	(d)	an agency or a special purpose vehicle of a State, including an agency or special purpose vehicle of (a), (b) or (c).

COLL 6.3.6G20/07/2018

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing
1	The valuation of scheme property
	(1)	Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.
	(2)	For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1 1
	3(2A)	Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments 5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5 the approved money-market instrument has a residual maturity of less than three months and has no specific sensitivity to market parameters, including credit risk; or5 the scheme is a qualifying money market fund.5 5 5
	[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]
	(2B)	[deleted]12 7
	12 7
	(3)	Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).
	(4)	For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unit prices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2
	(5)	Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that: no reliable price exists for a security 1 at a valuation point; or the most recent price available does not reflect the authorised fund manager's best estimate of the value of a security at the valuation point it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);
	(6)	The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include: no recent trade in the security concerned; or the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken. In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.
	(7)	In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration: the type of authorised fund concerned; the securities involved; the basis and reliability of the alternative price1 used; and the authorised fund manager's policy on the valuation of scheme property as disclosed in the prospectus.
	4(7A)	Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.
	(8)	The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.
	(9)	Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.
2	The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager
	(1)	An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.
	(2)	The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that: asset prices are accurate and up to date; investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations; the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue 1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability; the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed; compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed; dividends are accounted for as soon as securities 1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt): fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point 1; tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary; reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5 the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5 the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5
	(3)	In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund 1or the materiality of any effect on the price.
	(4)	Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.
	(5)	Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.
	(6)	Where the pricing 1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.
3	The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls
	(1)	This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing 1 functions to one or more third parties5. 5
	(2)	A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.
	(3)	A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.
	(4)	A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.
	(5)	Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue 1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.
	(6)	A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.
4	The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing
	(1)	An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.
	(2)	In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.
	(3)	A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing 1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.
	(4)	In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing 1 during a particular period.
5	The rectification of pricing breaches
	(1)	COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing 1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.
	(2)	A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing 1is of minimal significance if: the authorised fund manager and depositary meet the standards of control set out in Section 2 and Section 3 of this Table; and the error in pricing 1 of a unit is less than 0.5% of the correct price.
	(3)	In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing 1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.
	(4)	If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).
	(5)	The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing 1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.
	(6)	If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.
	(7)	It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.
	(8)	In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

SYSC 19C.3.43G01/01/2014

Variable remuneration can be awarded to BIPRU Remuneration Code staff in the form of retention awards where it is compatible with the BIPRU Remuneration Code general requirement to do so. The FCA considers this is likely to be the case only where a firm is undergoing a major restructuring and a good case can be made for retention of particular key staff members on prudential grounds. Proposals to give retention awards should form part of any notice of the restructuring proposals

BIPRU 7.2.48BR01/04/2013

3The firm must report to the appropriate regulator the total sum of its weighted net long and net short securitisation and resecuritisation positions, broken down by types of underlying assets.

REC 2.5.1UK03/01/2018

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4
(1)	The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.
(2)	Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -
	(a)	the transmission of information;
	(b)	the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE's relevant functions];
	(c)	the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];
	(ca)	the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;
	(d)	the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and
	(e)	(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.
	4(f)	the resilience of its trading systems;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]
	4(g)	the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]
	4(h)	the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;
	4(i)	the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;
	4(j)	the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;
	4(k)	the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];
	4(l)	the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;
	[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]
	4(m)	the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;
	4(n)	the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and
	4(o)	the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]
4(3)	For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -
	4(a)	establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and
	4(b)	monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.
4(4)	For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.
4(5)	The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.
4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must -
	4(a)	have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);
	4(b)	have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;
	4(c)	monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;
	4(d)	inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and
	4(e)	provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.
4(2)	A market making agreement must specify-
	4(a)	the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;
	4(b)	where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);
	4(c)	any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and
	4(d)	where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).
4(3)	For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -
	4(a)	the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;
	4(b)	the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and
	4(c)	the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.
4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must be able to -
	4(a)	temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and
	4(b)	in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.
4(2)	For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -
	4(a)	the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;
	4(b)	the nature of the trading venue market model; and
	4(c)	the types of users,
	4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.
4(3)	The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.
4(4)	If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in an EEA State in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]
4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access
4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -
4(1)	(a)	ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -
		4(i)	is an investment firm, as defined by Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive (definitions), authorised in accordance with the directive;
		4(ii)	is a credit institution authrised in accordance with the capital requirements directive;
		4(iii)	comes within Article 2.1(a), (e), (i), or (j) of the markets in financial instruments directive (exemptions) and has a Part 4A permission relating to investment services and activities;
		4(iv)	is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) or 47.3 (equivalence decision) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;
		4(v)	is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or
		4(vi)	is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;
	4(b)	ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;
	4(c)	ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service;
	4(d)	set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;
	4(e)	be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -
		4(i)	other orders; or
		4(ii)	trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and
	4(f)	have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]
4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services
4(1)	The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]
4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures
4(1)	The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -
	4(a)	be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]
	4(b)	not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]
	4(c)	impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.
4(2)	Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -
	4(a)	adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;
	4(b)	calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;
	4(c)	imposing a higher fee -
		4(i)	for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;
		4(ii)	on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or
		4(iii)	on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,
		4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.
4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -
	4(a)	the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and
	4(b)	the persons initiating those orders.
4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -
	4(a)	shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and
	4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]
	4(b)	any financial instrument for which regulatory technical standards are adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 49.3 or 4 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is traded on that trading venue.
	[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
4 (2)	The tick size regime must -
	4(a)	be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and
	4(b)	adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.
4(3)	The tick size regime must comply with any regulatory technical standards adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 49.3 or 4 of the markets in financial instruments directive.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]
4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks
4(1)	The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with regulatory technical standards adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 50 of the markets in financial instruments directive.
4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]

SUP 18.2.49G01/04/2013

Where the transferee is a friendly society, the notice should include information about the meeting at which a special resolution in accordance with paragraph 7 of Schedule 12 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 is to be voted on, including the date of the meeting, how notice of the meeting is to be given to members and the terms of the special resolution. After the meeting the friendly society should inform the appropriate regulator8 whether the special resolution has been passed.

Related provisions for SUP 15.8.14

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Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4