Related provisions for COLL 3.2.4

FEES 4.4.9D01/04/2013

3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444

COBS 18.5.3R03/01/2018

Where6COBSrules specified in the table in COBS 18.5.2 R apply to a firm carrying on scheme management activity12 or, for an AIFM, AIFM investment management functions, the following modifications apply:666(1) subject to (2), references to customer or client are to be construed as references to any fund6for12 which the firm6 is acting or intends to act12; 66(2) in the case of a small authorised UK AIFM of an unauthorised AIF or a residual CIS operator6, when a firm6 is required

COBS 18.5.4BR22/07/2013

6A small authorised UK AIFM of an unauthorised AIF which is not a collective investment scheme must comply with COBS 16.3 (Periodic reporting) with references to managing investments to be construed as providing AIFM investment management functions.

FEES 3.2.7R13/01/2018

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 79 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 79 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 79 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 1 79 34 34 34 34	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4	(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable	On or before the notice of exercise is given
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act 27 of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27	On or before the application is made
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF 36	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36	On or before the date the application is made36
(e) The management company 27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 27 27	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27	On or before the date the application is made28
28(ea) (i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation	FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4	On or before the date the notification is made
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation	£750	On or before the date the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 17 77	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
26(ga) Any applicant for: (i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35 administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35 (ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks 35	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 77 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 77 77	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29 (i) a firm applying to the FCA 29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA 29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA 29 5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's 29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29), any firm to which the FCA 29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1 1 2 29 5 77 29 5 77 29 5 77 29 77 29 77 29	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 77 5 77 5	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA 29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA 29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2 29 2 77 29 77 29 77
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37 FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37 FCA as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37 FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37 FCA's assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37 FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 37 37 37 37 37	(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37	Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37 FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37 FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity 30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).79 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,77 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 (3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44 (i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44 (ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44 30 79 41 30 79 79 1 77 77 37 77 37 79 79 37 1 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 11 37	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 78 13 78 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. 76 76 37 76 76 37 76 37	On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47	On or before the date the application is made.
47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations.	47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	47On or before the date the application is made.
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution 50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50 the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. 50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has. (4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47 47 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47 (2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]77 77	77	9 16 77
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R. 50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.18
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.	(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41	On or before the date the application is made.
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.	(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41	On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
77(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
77(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act	(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 79	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 79 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 79 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 79	On or before the application is made.79
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID 49 under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations.	Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below: (1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000. (2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1). (3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service.	On the date the application is made.
46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications.	1) Unless (2) applies, 20,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider will pay 80% of the fee at (1).	On the date the application is made
46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MiFID 49 and MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data. (3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application.	(1) Unless (2) applies, 10,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider authorised by another EEA State will pay 80% of the fee at (1).	On the date the application is made.
51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company.	500	On or before the date the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the prospectus rules, Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

FEES 4.2.2G01/03/2016

A relevant fee payer will be required to pay a periodic fee for every year during which they have the status in column 1 of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R3434 (or in relation to collective investment schemes, for every year during which it is a regulated collective investment scheme) subject to any reductions or exemptions applicable under this chapter. If a person is the relevant fee payer for more than one status listed in column 1 of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R34 (or in relation

COLL 8.6.3R01/04/2013

(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires,1 within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, temporarily1 suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is

EG 14.1.101/03/2016

1The FCA will consider all the relevant circumstances of each case and may take a number of factors into account when it decides whether to use these powers. The following list is not exhaustive; not all these factors may be relevant in a particular case and there may be other factors that are relevant. (1) The seriousness of the breach or likely breach by an authorised fund manager or depositary of a requirement imposed by or under the Act. The following

SUP 13A.3.12G01/02/2006

Under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in collective investment schemes), a person who for the time being is an operator, trustee or depositary of a scheme which is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act is an authorised person. Such a person is referred to in the Handbook as a UCITS qualifier.

COLL 11.6.8G01/04/2013

Regulation 12(4) (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011 provides that where a master UCITS merges with another scheme, the master UCITS must enable its feeder UCITS to repurchase or redeem all the units of the master UCITS in which they have invested before the consequences of the merger become effective, unless the FCA approves the continued investment by the feeder UCITS in a master UCITS resulting from the merger.

BIPRU 3.7.2R01/01/2007

This table belongs to BIPRU 3.7.1 R

[Note: BCD Annex II]

Category	Item	Percentage
Full risk	Guarantees having the character of credit substitutes Credit derivatives Acceptances Endorsements on bills not bearing the name of another credit institution Transactions with recourse Irrevocable standby letters of credit having the character of credit substitutes Assets purchased under outright forward purchase agreements Forward deposits The unpaid portion of partly-paid shares and securities Asset sale and repurchase agreements as defined in Article 12(3) and (5) of the Bank Accounts Directive Other items also carrying full risk	100%
Medium risk	Documentary credits issued and confirmed (see also medium/low risk). Warranties and indemnities (including tender, performance, customs and tax bonds) and guarantees not having the character of credit substitutes. Irrevocable standby letters of credit not having the character of credit substitutes. Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) with an original maturity of more than one year. Note issuance facilities (NIFs) and revolving underwriting facilities (RUFs).	50%
Medium/low risk	Documentary credits in which underlying shipment acts as collateral and other self-liquidating transactions. Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) with an original maturity of up to and including one year which may not be cancelled unconditionally at any time without notice or that do not effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness.	20%
Low risk	Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) which may be cancelled unconditionally at any time without notice, or that do effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness. Retail credit lines may be considered as unconditionally cancellable if the terms permit the firm to cancel them to the full extent allowable under consumer protection and related legislation.	0%

COLL 7.1.3G01/07/2013

(1) This chapter helps to achieve the statutory objective of protecting investors by ensuring they do not buy or redeemunits at a price that cannot be calculated accurately. For instance, due to unforeseen circumstances, it may be impossible to value, or to dispose of and obtain payment for, all or some of the scheme property of an authorised fund or sub-fund. COLL 7.2.1 R (Requirement) sets out the circumstances in which an authorised fund manager must or may suspend dealings

PR App 1.1.103/01/2018

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7 EU CRR.7 7 7
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
ESMA Prospectus Opinions 10 8	the following opinions published by ESMA:10
	(1)	Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation (ESMA/2013/1944);10
	(2)	Framework for the assessment of third country prospectuses under article 20 of the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/317);10
	(3)	Assessment of Israeli laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2015/1015); and10
	(4)	Assessment of Turkish laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2016/268). 10
8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers	the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2016/1674)13. 10
ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8 8	the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8 8
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
5 limited liability partnership	(a)	a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;
	(b)	a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
MiFID 3	Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments and amending the insurance mediation directive and AIFMD.12 3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
5 officer	(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
5partnership	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
11 PRIIPs Regulation	Regulation (EU) No 1286/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 November 2014 on key information documents for packaged retail and insurance-based investment products (PRIIPs). http://data.europa.eu/eli/reg/2014/1286/oj
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
13 Prospectus Regulation	Regulation (EU) No 2017/1129 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 June 2017 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading on a regulated market, and repealing Directive 2003/71/EC.
Prospectus RTS Regulations 9 8	9(1)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and
	9(2)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is14 an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 3014 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom:14 4
		14(i)	any relevant firm was14 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 of Directive 2004/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 21 April 2004 on markets in financial instruments; and14
		14(ii)	the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to MiFID.
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with12 Title III of MiFID.3 [Note: article 4(1)(21) of MiFID]12
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FCA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

COBS 2.1.4R22/07/2013

3A full-scope UK AIFM and an incoming EEA AIFM branch must, for all AIFs it manages: (1) act honestly, fairly and with due skill care and diligence in conducting their activities;(2) act in the best interests of the AIF it manages or the investors of the AIF it manages and the integrity of the market;(3) treat all investors fairly; and(4) not allow any investor in an AIF to obtain preferential treatment, unless such preferential treatment is disclosed in the relevant AIF'sinstrument

BIPRU 3.5.5G01/12/2009

Table : Simplified method of calculating risk weights

This table belongs to BIPRU 3.5.4 G.

Exposure class	Exposure sub-class	Risk weights	Comments
Central government	Exposures to United Kingdom government or Bank of England in sterling	0%
	Exposures to United Kingdom government or Bank of England in the currency of another EEA State	0%	See Note 2.
	Exposures to EEA State's central government or central bank in currency of that state	0%
	Exposures to EEA State's central government or central bank in the currency of another EEA State	0%	See Notes 2 and 3.
	Exposures to central governments or central banks of certain countries outside the EEA in currency of that country	See next column	The risk weight is whatever it is under local law. See BIPRU 3.4.6 R for precise details.
	Exposures to European Central Bank	0%
	Other exposures	100%
Regional/local governments	Exposures to the Scottish Parliament, National Assembly for Wales and Northern Ireland Assembly in sterling	0%
	Exposures to the Scottish Parliament, National Assembly for Wales and Northern Ireland Assembly in the currency of another EEA State	0%	See Note 2.
	Exposures to EEA States' equivalent regional/local governments in currency of that state	0%	See BIPRU 3.4.17 R for details of type of local/regional government covered.
	Exposures to EEA States' equivalent regional/local governments in the currency of another EEA State	0%	See BIPRU 3.4.17 R for details of type of local/regional government covered. See Notes 2 and 3.
	Exposures to local or regional governments of certain countries outside the EEA in currency of that country	0%	See BIPRU 3.4.19 R for details of type of local/regional government covered. See Note 1.
	Exposures to United Kingdom or EEA States' local/regional government in currency of that state if the exposure has original effective maturity of 3 months or less	20%
	Exposures to United Kingdom or EEA States' local/regional government in the currency of another EEA State if the exposure has original effective maturity of 3 months or less	20%	See Note 2. See Note 3 for local/regional government of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom
	Exposures to local or regional governments of countries outside the EEA in currency of that country if the exposure has original effective maturity of 3 months or less	20%	See Note 1.
	Other exposures	100%
PSE	Exposures to a PSE of the United Kingdom or of an EEA State if that PSE is guaranteed by its central government and if the exposure is be in currency of that PSE's state.	0%	BIPRU 3.4.24 R describes the United Kingdom PSEs covered and BIPRU 3.4.25 R describes the EEA PSEs covered.
	Exposures to PSE of a country outside the EEA if that PSE is guaranteed by the country's central government and if the exposure is in currency of that country.	0%	See BIPRU 3.4.26 R and Note 1.
	Exposures to a PSE of the United Kingdom or of an EEA State in currency of that state if the exposure has original effective maturity of 3 months or less	20%
	Exposures to a PSEof the United Kingdom or of an EEA State in the currency of another EEA State if the exposure has original effective maturity of 3 months or less	20%	See Notes 2 and 3.
	Exposures to PSE of a country outside the EEA in currency of that country if the exposure has original effective maturity of 3 months or less	20%	See Note 1.
	Other exposures	100%
Multilateral development banks	Exposures to multilateral development banks listed in paragraph (1) of the Glossary definition	0%	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
Multilateral development banks	Other exposures	Various	Treated as an institution
EU 2, the International Monetary Fund and the Bank for International Settlements 2		0%	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
Institutions	Exposures to United Kingdom institution in sterling with original effective maturity of three months or less	20%
	Exposures to United Kingdom institution in the currency of another EEA State with original effective maturity of three months or less	20%	See Note 2.
	Exposures to institution whose head office is in another EEA State in the currency of that state with original effective maturity of three months or less	20%
	Exposures to institution whose head office is in another EEA State in the currency of another EEA State with original effective maturity of three months or less	20%	See Notes 2 and 3.
	Exposures to institution with a head office in a country outside the EEA in the currency of that country with original effective maturity of three months or less	20%	See Note 1.
	Exposures to United Kingdom institution in sterling with original effective maturity of over three months	50%
	Exposures to United Kingdom institution in the currency of another EEA State with original effective maturity of over three months	50%	See Note 2.
	Exposures to an EEA institution with a head office in another EEA State in the currency of that state with original effective maturity of over three 1months	50%
	Exposures to an EEA institution with a head office in another EEA State in the currency of another EEA State with original effective maturity of over three1 months	50%	See Notes 2 and 3.
	Exposures to institution with a head office in a country outside the EEA in the currency of that country with original effective maturity of over three1 months	50%	See Note 1.
	Other exposures	100%
Corporates		100%
Retail exposures		75%	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
Mortgages on residential or commercial property		Various	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
Past due items		Various	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
High risk items		150%	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
Covered bonds		Various	Risk weights are based on the risk weight of issuer as described in BIPRU 3.4.110 R. The risk weight of the issuer for this purpose should be calculated under the simplified approach.
Securitisation exposures		Generally 1250%. May look through to underlying exposures if BIPRU 9 allows.	Use the BIPRU 9rules for unrated exposures under the standardised approach
Short term exposures with rating			See BIPRU 3.4.112 R. Not applicable as uses ECAI ratings.
CIUs	May look through to underlying under BIPRU 3.4.123 R	Various	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply. May use simplified approach to underlying if simplified approach applies to underlying.
	May use average risk weight under BIPRU 3.4.124 R	Various	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply. May use simplified approach to underlyings if simplified approach applies to underlying.
	High risk under BIPRU 3.4.118 R	150%	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
	Others	100%
Other items under BIPRU 3.2.9 R (16)		Various	Simplified approach does not apply. Normal rules apply.
Note 1: The risk weight should not be lower than the risk weight that applies for national currency exposures of the central government of the third country in question under BIPRU 3.5. That means that this risk weight only applies if the third country is one of those to which BIPRU 3.4.6 R (Preferential risk weight for exposures of the central government of countries outside the EEA that apply equivalent prudential standards) applies.
Note 2: This is a transitional measure. It lasts until 31 December 2012.
Note 3: The risk weight should not be lower than the risk weight that applies for exposures of the central government of the EEA State in question in the currency of another EEA State under BIPRU 3.5.

FEES 6.7.6R01/04/2018

If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year6 of the compensation scheme:44(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised

CASS 1.4.7R18/03/2016

Subject to CASS 1.4.6 R, 5CASS applies to a depositary, when acting as such, with the following general modifications9: 'client' means 'trustee', 'trust', 'AIF', 'AIFM acting on behalf of the AIF', ‘UCITS scheme’, ‘authorised fund manager acting on behalf of the UCITS scheme’, 9or 'collective investment scheme', as appropriate.555

COBS 9.4.3R01/11/2007

The obligation to provide a suitability report does not apply:(1) if the firm, acting as an investment manager for a retail client, makes a personal recommendation relating to a regulated collective investment scheme;(2) if the client is habitually resident outside the EEA and the client is not present in the United Kingdom at the time of acknowledging consent to the proposal form to which the personal recommendation relates;(3) to any personal recommendation by a friendly society

PERG 1.4.2G01/07/2014

Table: list of general guidance to be found in PERG.

Chapter:	Applicable to:	About:
PERG 2: Authorisation and regulated activities	an unauthorised person wishing to find out whether he needs to be authorised or exempt an authorised person wishing to know whether he needs to vary hisPart 4A permission	the regulatory scope of the Act the Regulated Activities Order the Exemption Order the Business Order
PERG 3A:8 Guidance on the scope of the Electronic Money Regulations 8 8 8	a person who needs to know whether a particular electronic payment product is8electronic money 8 and whether the person issuing it needs to be8 authorised or registered under the Electronic Money Regulations 8	the scope of the8Electronic Money Regulations 8
PERG 4: Regulated activities connected with mortgages	any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FCA regulation. This is likely to include: lenders administration service providers mortgage brokers and advisers	the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages
PERG 5: Insurance mediation activities	any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FCA regulation. This is likely to include: insurance brokers insurance advisers insurance undertakings other persons involved in the sale or administration of contracts of insurance, where these activities are secondary to their main business.	the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance
PERG 6: Identification of contracts of insurance	any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance	the general principles and range of specific factors that the FCA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance
PERG 7: Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification	any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service	the circumstances in which such persons will be carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments or advising on regulated mortgage contracts (including where a request for a certificate may be appropriate) how theFCA will exercise its power to grant certificates
PERG 8: Financial promotion and related activities	any person who needs to know whether his communications are financial promotions or are subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act or both whether his activities in making or helping others to make financial promotions are regulated activities. whether he is marketing an AIF.11	the scope of the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act and the main exemptions provided the circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may themselves be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption the marketing of an AIF.11
PERG 9: Meaning of open-ended investment company	any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme.	the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company
PERG 10: Activities related to pension schemes	Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1 1	the regulated activities that arise in connection with the establishment and operation of pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant the circumstances in which financial promotions about pension schemes may be exempt from the restriction in section 21 of the Act 1
4PERG 11: Property investment clubs and land investment schemes	Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.	the regulated activities that may arise in connection with the establishment and operation of property investment clubs and land investment schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant the extent to which the financial promotion restriction in section 21 of the Act applies
2PERG 12: Running or advising on personal pension schemes	any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities	the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant
3PERG 13: Guidance on the scope of MiFID and CRD IV12 9 12 5	Any UK person who needs to know whether MiFID or the CRD and EU CRR (which allow the recast CAD to continue to apply to certain firms)9as implemented in the UK apply to him5 9	the scope of MiFID and the CRD and EU CRR.5 9
3PERG 14: Home reversion,7 home finance and regulated sale and rent back 7activities 7	Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans,7 home purchase plans or regulated sale and rent back agreements 7will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. 7	the regulated activities that arise in connection with home reversion plans,7 home purchase plansand regulated sale and rent back agreements 7and any exclusions that may be relevant the circumstances in which financial promotions about home reversion plans,7home purchase plansand regulated sale and rent back agreements 7may be made without breaching the restriction in section 21 of the Act
6PERG 15: Guidance on the scope of the Payment Services Regulations 2009	Any person with an establishment in the UK who needs to know whether the Payment Services Directive, as transposed in UK legislation by the Payment Services Regulations 2009, applies to him. Q46 applies specifically to persons providing payment services from an establishment outside the EEA to persons located in the UK.	the scope of the PSD Regulations 2009.11
11PERG 16: Scope of the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive	any person who needs to know whether a collective investment undertaking is an AIF.	the scope of the regulated activities of managing an AIF and acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF.10
10PERG 17: Consumer credit debt counselling	Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to debts will amount to debt counselling.	The scope of the regulated activities relating to consumer credit debt counselling.

Chapter:

Applicable to:

About:

PERG 2:

Authorisation and regulated activities

an unauthorised person wishing to find out whether he needs to be authorised or exempt
an authorised person wishing to know whether he needs to vary hisPart 4A permission

the regulatory scope of the Act
the Regulated Activities Order
the Exemption Order
the Business Order

PERG 3A:8

Guidance on the scope of the Electronic Money Regulations 8

8 8

a person who needs to know

whether a particular electronic payment product is8electronic money 8 and whether the person issuing it needs to be8 authorised or registered under the Electronic Money Regulations 8

the scope of the8Electronic Money Regulations 8

PERG 4:

Regulated activities connected with mortgages

any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FCA regulation. This is likely to include:

lenders
administration service providers
mortgage brokers and advisers

the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages

PERG 5:

Insurance

mediation

activities

any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FCA regulation. This is likely to include:

insurance brokers
insurance advisers
insurance undertakings
other persons involved in the sale or administration of contracts of insurance, where these activities are secondary to their main business.

the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance

PERG 6:

Identification of contracts of insurance

any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance

the general principles and range of specific factors that the FCA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance

PERG 7:

Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification

any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service

the circumstances in which such persons will be carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments or advising on regulated mortgage contracts (including where a request for a certificate may be appropriate)
how theFCA will exercise its power to grant certificates

PERG 8:

Financial promotion and related activities

any person who needs to know

whether his communications are financial promotions or are subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act or both
whether his activities in making or helping others to make financial promotions are regulated activities.
whether he is marketing an AIF.11

the scope of the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act and the main exemptions provided
the circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may themselves be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption
the marketing of an AIF.11

PERG 9:

Meaning of open-ended investment company

any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme.

the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company

PERG 10:

Activities related to pension schemes

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1

1

the regulated activities that arise in connection with the establishment and operation of pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant
the circumstances in which financial promotions about pension schemes may be exempt from the restriction in section 21 of the Act 1

4PERG 11:

Property investment clubs and land investment schemes

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.

the regulated activities that may arise in connection with the establishment and operation of property investment clubs and land investment schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant
the extent to which the financial promotion restriction in section 21 of the Act applies

2PERG 12:

Running or advising on personal pension schemes

any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities

the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant

3PERG 13:

Guidance on the scope of MiFID and CRD IV12

9 12 5

Any UK person who needs to know whether MiFID or the CRD and EU CRR (which allow the recast CAD to continue to apply to certain firms)9as implemented in the UK apply to him5

9

the scope of MiFID and the CRD and EU CRR.5

9

3PERG 14:

Home reversion,7 home finance and regulated sale and rent back 7activities

7

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans,7 home purchase plans or regulated sale and rent back agreements 7will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.

7

the regulated activities that arise in connection with home reversion plans,7 home purchase plansand regulated sale and rent back agreements 7and any exclusions that may be relevant
the circumstances in which financial promotions about home reversion plans,7home purchase plansand regulated sale and rent back agreements 7may be made without breaching the restriction in section 21 of the Act

6PERG 15: Guidance on the scope of the Payment Services Regulations 2009

Any person with an establishment in the UK who needs to know whether the Payment Services Directive, as transposed in UK legislation by the Payment Services Regulations 2009, applies to him.

Q46 applies specifically to persons providing payment services from an establishment outside the EEA to persons located in the UK.

the scope of the PSD Regulations 2009.11

11PERG 16: Scope of the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive

any person who needs to know whether a collective investment undertaking is an AIF.

the scope of the regulated activities of managing an AIF and acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF.10

10PERG 17: Consumer credit debt counselling

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to debts will amount to debt counselling.

The scope of the regulated activities relating to consumer credit debt counselling.

COLL 5.8.7R01/07/2011

The following rules and guidance in COLL 5.1 (Introduction), COLL 5.2 (General investment powers and limits for UCITS schemes) and COLL 5.5 (Cash, borrowing, lending and other provisions) apply to the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS and to an ICVC which is a feeder UCITS:(1) COLL 5.1.1 R (Application), COLL 5.1.2G (1) (Purpose) and COLL 5.1.3 R (Treatment of obligations);(2) COLL 5.2.1 R (Application), COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application) and

TC App 1.1.1R03/01/2018

1Activity	Products/Sectors		Is there an appropriate qualification4requirement? 4
Designated investment business carried on for a retail client
Providing basic advice	1.	Stakeholder products excluding a deposit-based stakeholder product	No
Advising or giving personal recommendations (as relevant)13	2.	Giving personal recommendations on securities 13 which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes 7 or broker funds	Yes
	3.	Giving personal recommendations on derivatives 13	Yes2
	4.	Giving personal recommendations on retail investment products 13 which are not broker funds 6 6	Yes2
	5.	Giving personal recommendations on13 Friendly Society life policies where the employee is not reasonably expected to receive a remuneration of greater than £1000 a year in respect of such sales	No2
	6.	Giving personal recommendations on13 Friendly Society tax-exempt policies (other than Holloway sickness policies where the Holloway policy special application conditions are met)5	Yes2
	7.	Giving personal recommendations on long-term care insurance contracts 13	Yes2
	8.	Giving personal recommendations on investments 13 in the course of corporate finance business	Yes2
	9.	Advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's	Yes2
	129A.	Advising on P2P agreements	Yes
Undertaking the activity in column 2	10.	Broker fund adviser	Yes
Undertaking the activity in column 2	11.	Pension transfer specialist	Yes2
Giving personal recommendations13 and dealing	12.	Giving personal recommendations on and dealing in securities 13 which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes 7 or broker funds	Yes
Giving personal recommendations13 and dealing	13.	Giving personal recommendations on and dealing in derivatives 13	Yes2
4Dealing	13A.8	Securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes 7 or broker funds	No
4Dealing	413B.8	Derivatives	No
8 MiFID business bidding	13C.	Emissions auction products that are financial instruments	No
Managing	14.	Investments	Yes
Overseeing on a day-to-day basis	15.	Operating a collective investment scheme or undertaking the activities of a trustee or depositary of a collective investment scheme	Yes
	16.	Safeguarding and administering investments or holding client money	Yes2
	17.	Administrative functions in relation to managing investments	Yes2
	18.	Administrative functions in relation to effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance which are life policies	Yes2
	19.	Administrative functions in relation to the operation of stakeholder pension schemes	Yes2
Mortgage Activity10 and reversion activity carried on for a customer 10
9 10Advising; arranging (bringing about) an execution-only sale, excluding variations to an existing home finance transaction except where the effect is to change all or part of the home finance transaction from one interest rate to another. See Note 3, which for the avoidance of doubt forms part of this rule.	20	Regulated mortgage contracts for a non-business purpose	Yes
	20A	Regulated mortgage contracts for a business purpose	No
	21	Equity release transactions	Yes
9Designing scripted questions for execution-only sales	21A	Regulated mortgage contracts for a non-business purpose	Yes
	21B	Regulated mortgage contracts for a business purpose	No
	22	Equity release transactions	Yes
Overseeing execution-only sales on a day-to-day basis9 9	23.	Equity release transactions	Yes
11 MCD credit agreement activities carried on for consumers
11manufacturing	23A	an MCD credit agreement	No
11 entering into a regulated mortgage contract or entering into a regulated credit agreement as lender	23B	an MCD credit agreement	No
11 arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts or acting as an MCD credit broker	23C	an MCD credit agreement	No
11 advising on a regulated mortgage contract or advising on a regulated credit agreement for the acquisition of land	23D	an MCD credit agreement	No
11directly managing or supervising employees who carry on any of the MCD credit agreement activities 23A to 23D	23E	an MCD credit agreement	No
[Note: article 9(1) of the MCD]11
Non-investment insurance business carried on for a consumer
Giving personal recommendations13	24.	Giving personal recommendations on non-investment insurance contracts 13	No
3 Regulated sale and rent back activity carried on for a customer
Advising	25.	Regulated sale and rent back agreements	No
Overseeing an execution-only sale 10 on a day-to-day basis 10	26.	Regulated sale and rent back agreements	No
Notes:
1.	In the Appendix the heading and types of business specified in the headings are to be read in conjunction with the paragraphs appearing beneath them.
2.	Thus, for example, paragraph 24,13 consistent with the heading above it, refers only to personal recommendations given in relation to13 non-investment insurance contracts given to a consumer.10 3 3
122A.	In relation to activity number 9A, see TC 2.1.5HR and TC 2.1.6R(2). There is no qualification for this activity in the list of qualifications set out in TC Appendix 4E. However, the effect of TC 2.1.5HR is that an employee advising on P2P agreements must be qualified to the same standard as if that employee were providing investment advice to retail clients on retail investment products.
103.	For the purpose of product numbers 20, 20A and 21 the activity of arranging (bringing about) referred to in the activity column: (a) includes activity which would be arranging (bringing about) but for the exclusion in article 28A of the Regulated Activities Order; and (b) does not include activities which taken on their own would not fall within the definition of that activity. For these purposes no account should be taken of the fact that for an activity to be a regulated activity it must be carried on by way of business (see PERG 4.3).
4.	In this Appendix, paragraphs 23A, 23B, 23C, 23D and 23E relate to the implementation of article 9(1) of the MCD. The specified activities do not, in and of themselves, attract a qualification requirement. However, where those activities overlap with those specified under the heading "mortgage activity and reversion activity carried on for a customer", qualification requirements may apply.

Related provisions for COLL 3.2.4

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32