Related provisions for PERG 4.6.8

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MCOB 14.1.7RRP
The following provisions do not apply to an MCD article 3(1)(b) creditor or MCD article 3(1)(b) credit intermediary where the conditions in CONC 1.2.10R(1) and (2) are fulfilled: MCOB 7.5 (mortgages: statements) and MCOB 13 (arrears, payment shortfalls and repossessions) (except for MCOB 13.3.1AR to MCOB 13.3.1BG, MCOB 13.3.2AR to MCOB 13.3.8G, and MCOB 13.6.1R to MCOB 13.6.2G, which apply even where those conditions are fulfilled).[Note:article 60H(2) of the Regulated Activities
PRIN 1.2.3GRP
1(1) In relation to the carrying on of designated investment business, a firm's categorisation of a client under the COBS client categorisation chapter (COBS 3) will be applicable for the purposes of Principles 6, 7, 8 and 9.33(1A) Client categorisation under COBS 3 or PRIN 1 Annex 1 is not relevant to credit-related regulated activities and therefore the guidance on client categorisation does not apply in relation to a credit-related regulated activity. The definitions of client
CASS 10.1.1RRP
(1) Subject to (2) this chapter applies to a firm when it:(a) holds financial instruments, is safeguarding and administering investments, is acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF or is acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS,2 in accordance with CASS 6;24(aa) is acting as a small AIFM and carries on excluded custody activities in accordance with CASS 6; and/or4(b) holds client money in accordance with CASS 7.(2) This chapter does not apply to a firm to which CASS 6 applies
CONC 4.5.1RRP
(1) CONC 4.5.2 G applies to a firm with respect to consumer credit lending.(2) CONC 4.5.3 R and CONC 4.5.4 R apply to a firm with respect to credit broking in relation to:(a) regulated credit agreements; and(b) regulated consumer hire agreements.(3) CONC 4.5.3 R and CONC 4.5.4 R also apply to a firm carrying on the activities specified in article 36A(1)(a) or(c) of the Regulated Activities Order in relation to:(a) credit agreements that would be regulated credit agreements but
COLL 8.4.4RRP
The scheme property of a qualified investor scheme must, except where otherwise provided by the rules in this chapter, consist only of one or more of the following to which it is dedicated:(1) any specified investment:(a) within articles 74 to 86 of the Regulated Activities Order; and(b) within article 89 (Rights to or interests in investments) of the Regulated Activities Order where the right or interest relates to a specified investment within (a);(2) an interest in an immovable3
SYSC 4 Annex 1GRP

Business areas and management functions

Explanation

(1) Payment services

This means:

(1) payment services;

(2) issuing and administering other means of payment (for example, cheques and bankers' drafts);

(3) issuing electronic money; and

(4) current accounts.

(2) Settlement

This means clearing and settlement of any transactions described in rows (3) and (6) to (9) of this annex, in relation to the assets covered by (9).

It also includes clearing and settlement of any transactions described in row (10).

(3) Investment management

This has the same meaning as managing investments with the following adjustments:

(a) it covers all types of assets; and

(b) the exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order do not apply.

It also covers fund management.

(4) Financial or investment advice

This includes advising on investments.

(5) Mortgage advice

This has the same meaning as advising on regulated mortgage contracts but is expanded to cover land anywhere in the world and to cover security of any kind over land.

(6) Corporate investments

This means acquiring, holding, managing and disposing a firm's investments made for its own account.

(7) Wholesale sales

This means the selling of any investment to a person other than a retail customer.

It does not include the activities in (1).

(8) Retail sales

This means the selling of any investment to a retail customer.

It includes savings accounts. It does not include the activities in (1).

(9) Trading for clients

This means dealing in investments as agent and execution of orders on behalf of clients but the list of products includes money market instruments and foreign exchange.

(10) Market making

This has the same meaning as it does in MIFID (see the definition of market maker in article 4.1(8)).

(11) Investment research

(12) Origination/syndication and underwriting

Origination and syndication include:

(1) entering into or acquiring (directly or indirectly) any commitment or investment with a view to transferring some or all of it to others, or with a view to others investing in the same transaction;

(2) sub-participation; and

(3) any transaction described in the Glossary definition of originator.

Underwriting includes underwriting that is not on a firm commitment basis.

A commitment or investment includes an economic interest in some or all of it.

This activity also includes the provision of services relating to such transactions.

(13) Retail lending decisions

Deciding whether, and on what terms, to lend to retail customers.

Lending includes granting credit, leasing and hire (including finance leasing).

(14) Wholesale lending decisions

Deciding whether, and on what terms, to lend to persons who are not retail customers.

Lending includes granting credit, leasing and hire (including finance leasing).

(15) Design and manufacturing of products intended for wholesale customers

Wholesale customers mean persons who are not retail customers

(16) Design and manufacture of products intended for retail customers

(17) Production and distribution of marketing materials and communications

This includes financial promotions

(18) Customer service

This means dealing with clients after the point of sale, including queries and fulfilment of client requests

(19) Customer complaints handling

This includes the firm's compliance with DISP.

It also includes:

(1) any similar procedures relating to activities that do not come under the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service;

(2) activities that take place outside the UK; and

(3) activities that are not subject to any ombudsman service.

(20) Collection and recovering amounts owed to a firm by its customers

Dealing with customers in arrears

‘Customer’ means any person falling into any of the definitions of client in the Glossary so far as they apply to the FCA's Handbook. The definition is extended to cover all services provided by the firm and not just those that are provided in the course of carrying on a regulated activity or an ancillary service.

(21) Middle office

This means risk management and controls in relation to, and accounting for, transactions in securities or derivatives

(22) The firm's information technology

(23) Business continuity planning

This means the functions described in SYSC 4.1.6R and SYSC 4.1.7R

(24) Human resources

This includes recruitment, training and competence and performance monitoring

(25) Incentive schemes for the firm's staff

This is not limited to schemes based on sales.

(26) Providing information in relation to a specified benchmark

(27) Administering a specified benchmark

Note (1): The purpose of this annex is explained in SYSC 4.5 (Management responsibilities maps for UK2 relevant authorised persons) and SYSC 4.7.37G. This annex is also referred to in SYSC 4.6 (Management responsibilities maps for non-UK relevant authorised persons) and SYSC 4.8 (Senior management responsibilities for third-country relevant authorised persons: allocation of responsibilities) (see SYSC 4.6.14 and SYSC 4.8.35).2

Note (2): A firm does not have to use the split of activities in this annex for the purposes in Note (1). If a firm does decide to use it, it may adapt it to suit its management arrangements better.

For example, a firm may find the split of activities into retail and wholesale activities unsuitable. If so, the firm might:

(a) treat retail and wholesale activities together; or

(b) use its own definition of retail and wholesale activities.

CONC 7.3.1GRP
(1) In relation to debt collecting and debt administration, the definition of customer refers to an individual from whom the payment of a debt is sought; this would include where a firm mistakenly treats an individual as the borrower under an agreement and mistakenly or wrongly pursues the individual for a debt.[Note: paragraph 1.12 of DCG](2) In relation to debt collecting and debt administration, the definitions of customer and borrower are given extended meanings to include,
PERG 4.13.2GRP
3The bodies in PERG 4.13.1 G are exempt in relation to the regulated activity of arranging the variation of a regulated mortgage contract (article 25A(1)(b) of the Regulated Activities Order).
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person or a certification employee8?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10A.7.1 R17) and an application must be made under section 59 of the Act for approval of the individual before the function is performed. There are exceptions from this in SUP 10A.117 (Approved persons - Application).

The apportionment and oversight function does not apply to a relevant authorised person. However, a person performing the role in SYSC 4.4.5R will fall into the certification regime in SYSC 5.2 (Certification Regime), unless the person performing it is an approved person. A person performing the role in SYSC 4.4.5R may be an approved person because of another role that they perform (such as being an executive director).8

1717

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The appropriate regulator considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the appropriate regulator, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The appropriate regulator envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of independent,9 non-executive directors to be responsible (among other things) for overseeing the effectiveness9 of the audit process and the objectivity and independence of the external auditor9. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.

SUP 13.3.2CGRP
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FCA20 under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).20
SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23

23192323

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

172223

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23

23

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A)

21

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824

27(5B)30

CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17

239281723

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

9(7A)

Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15),28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

23281722

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025

25(7AA)

A firm that has exercised an opt in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R

SUP 3.1 to SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10.

9(7B)

Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28UCITS firm13or an internally managed AIF28 (Note 6)23

13

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

13(7C)

UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014

17(7D)

Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

10

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

1010

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 [deleted]23

171723

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23).

18

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

17Note 3A [deleted]23

23

20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.

17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited.

20202222

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28

SUP 13.1.3GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) a firm established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; passporting by such a firm in or into the United Kingdom is a matter for its Home State regulator although guidance is given in 4SUP 13A4 (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act);(2) other overseas firms (that is, overseas firms established outside the EEA); such firms are not entitled to passport into another EEA State and, where relevant, may need to obtain authorisation
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65

65

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

(1) Unless (2) applies, as37 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65.37

(2) Where a firm is paying a ring-fencing implementation fee, as specified in FEES 4 Annex 2BR.37

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

7764

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order32 or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

679

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

64

£1,08431

31

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Certificate issued to person by FCA64 under Article 54 RAO

64

Any manager of an AUT23;

23

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24

24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;

In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25

Not applicable

AIFM of a UK ELTIF33

In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33

The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation33

Designated professional body

FEES 4 Annex 5

On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

23

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and

FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13

65

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131166

1166116611661166

ROIE65

65

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166

1166116611661166

A listed issuer35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

33

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

A sponsor35

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

3110122323311210231

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

35Approval of a35sponsor35

141414

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

66

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

29

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements36 and transparency rules629

29Any primary information provider

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

A person is approved as a primary information provider

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6410

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

64

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

(ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK

26A small registered UK AIFM

The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4

The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.

30Each of the following that makes transaction reports directly to the FCA under SUP 17 (Transaction reporting):

(1) a firm;

(2) a third party acting on a firm's behalf;

(3) an approved reporting mechanism;

(4) an operator of a regulated market; and

(5) an operator of an MTF.

FEES 4 Annex 3A

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

The FCA enters into arrangements with the fee payer under which it can make transaction reports directly to the FCA

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2