Related provisions for INSPRU 3.2.28

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SUP 16.11.1RRP
This section2 applies:935510(1) in relation to sales data reports, to a firm:1010(a) which is a home finance provider; or(b) which has permission to enter into a regulated credit agreement as lender in respect of high-cost short-term credit or home credit loan agreements; or(c) which is, in respect of sales to a retail client or a consumer:(i) an insurer; or(ii) the manager of an authorised AIF or a UCITS scheme; or(iii) the operator of an investment trust savings scheme, or a
EG 8.3.4RP
1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case when it decides whether an urgent variation of Part 4A permission or an imposition of a requirement is appropriate. The following is a non-exhaustive list of factors the FCA may consider. (1) The extent of any loss, or risk of loss, or other adverse effect on consumers. The more serious the loss or potential loss or other adverse effect, the more likely it is that the FCA’s urgent exercise of own-initiative powers will
BIPRU 2.1.25GRP
The following are the criteria that the appropriate regulator will take into account when considering whether the condition in BIPRU 2.1.24 R is going to be met:(1) the speed with which funds can be transferred or liabilities repaid to the firm and the simplicity of the method for the transfer or repayment;(2) whether there are any interests other than those of the firm in the subsidiary undertaking and what impact those other interests may have on the firm's control over the
SUP 16.16.2RRP
The condition referred to in SUP 16.16.1 R is that, on its last accounting reference date, the firm had balance sheet positions measured at fair value which, on a gross basis (the sum of the absolute value of each of the assets and liabilities), exceeded £3 billion.
SUP 16.18.4EURP

Reporting to competent authorities

1.

In order to comply with the requirements of the second subparagraph of Article 24(1) and of point (d) of Article 3(3) of Directive 2011/61/EU, an AIFM shall provide the following information when reporting to competent authorities:

(a)

the main instruments in which it is trading, including a break-down of financial instruments and other assets, including the AIF's investment strategies and their geographical and sectoral investment focus;

(b)

the markets of which it is a member or where it actively trades;

(c)

the diversification of the AIF's portfolio, including, but not limited to, its principal exposures and most important concentrations.

The information shall be provided as soon as possible and not later than one month after the end of the period referred to in paragraph 3. Where the AIF is a fund of funds this period may be extended by the AIFM by 15 days.

2.

For each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union, AIFMs shall provide to the competent authorities of their home Member State the following information in accordance with Article 24(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU:

(a)

the percentage of the AIF's assets which are subject to special arrangements as defined in Article 1(5) of this Regulation arising from their illiquid nature as referred to in point (a) of Article 23(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU;

(b)

any new arrangements for managing the liquidity of the AIF;

(c)

the risk management systems employed by the AIFM to manage the market risk, liquidity risk, counterparty risk and other risks including operational risk;

(d)

the current risk profile of the AIF, including:

(i)

the market risk profile of the investments of the AIF, including the expected return and volatility of the AIF in normal market conditions;

(ii)

the liquidity profile of the investments of the AIF, including the liquidity profile of the AIF's assets, the profile of redemption terms and the terms of financing provided by counterparties to the AIF;

(e)

information on the main categories of assets in which the AIF invested including the corresponding short market value and long market value, the turnover and performance during the reporting period; and

(f)

the results of periodic stress tests, under normal and exceptional circumstances, performed in accordance with point (b) of Article 15(3) and the second subparagraph of Article 16(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU.

3.

The information referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2 shall be reported as follows:

(a)

on a half-yearly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed the threshold of either EUR 100 million or EUR 500 million laid down in points (a) and (b) respectively of Article 3(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU but do not exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(b)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage, and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(c)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs which are subject to the requirements referred to in point (a) of this paragraph, for each AIF whose assets under management, including any assets acquired through use of leverage, in total exceed EUR 500 million, in respect of that AIF;

(d)

on an annual basis by AIFMs in respect of each unleveraged AIF under their management which, in accordance with its core investment policy, invests in non-listed companies and issuers in order to acquire control.

4.

By way of derogation from paragraph 3, the competent authority of the home Member State of the AIFM may deem it appropriate and necessary for the exercise of its function to require all or part of the information to be reported on a more frequent basis.

5.

AIFMs managing one or more AIFs which they have assessed to be employing leverage on a substantial basis in accordance with Article 111 of this Regulation shall provide the information required under Article 24(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU at the same time as that required under paragraph 2 of this Article.

6.

AIFMs shall provide the information specified under paragraphs 1, 2 and 5 in accordance with the pro-forma reporting template set out in the Annex IV.

7.

In accordance with point (a) of Article 42(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU, for non-EU AIFMs, any reference to the competent authorities of the home Member State shall mean the competent authority of the Member State of reference.

[Note: Article 110 of the AIFMD level 2 regulation]
DEPP 6.5C.4GRP
(1) If the FCA3 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the market abuse, or others, from committing further or similar abuse then the FCA3 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA3 may do this include:333(a) where the FCA3 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the market abuse to meet its objective of credible deterrence;3(b) where previous FCA3 action in respect of similar
SYSC 4 Annex 1GRP

Business areas and management functions

Explanation

(1) Payment services

This means:

(1) payment services;

(2) issuing and administering other means of payment (for example, cheques and bankers' drafts);

(3) issuing electronic money; and

(4) current accounts.

(2) Settlement

This means clearing and settlement of any transactions described in rows (3) and (6) to (9) of this annex, in relation to the assets covered by (9).

It also includes clearing and settlement of any transactions described in row (10).

(3) Investment management

This has the same meaning as managing investments with the following adjustments:

(a) it covers all types of assets; and

(b) the exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order do not apply.

It also covers fund management.

(4) Financial or investment advice

This includes advising on investments.

(5) Mortgage advice

This has the same meaning as advising on regulated mortgage contracts but is expanded to cover land anywhere in the world and to cover security of any kind over land.

(6) Corporate investments

This means acquiring, holding, managing and disposing a firm's investments made for its own account.

(7) Wholesale sales

This means the selling of any investment to a person other than a retail customer.

It does not include the activities in (1).

(8) Retail sales

This means the selling of any investment to a retail customer.

It includes savings accounts. It does not include the activities in (1).

(9) Trading for clients

This means dealing in investments as agent and execution of orders on behalf of clients but the list of products includes money market instruments and foreign exchange.

(10) Market making

This has the same meaning as it does in MIFID (see the definition of market maker in article 4.1(8)).

(11) Investment research

(12) Origination/syndication and underwriting

Origination and syndication include:

(1) entering into or acquiring (directly or indirectly) any commitment or investment with a view to transferring some or all of it to others, or with a view to others investing in the same transaction;

(2) sub-participation; and

(3) any transaction described in the Glossary definition of originator.

Underwriting includes underwriting that is not on a firm commitment basis.

A commitment or investment includes an economic interest in some or all of it.

This activity also includes the provision of services relating to such transactions.

(13) Retail lending decisions

Deciding whether, and on what terms, to lend to retail customers.

Lending includes granting credit, leasing and hire (including finance leasing).

(14) Wholesale lending decisions

Deciding whether, and on what terms, to lend to persons who are not retail customers.

Lending includes granting credit, leasing and hire (including finance leasing).

(15) Design and manufacturing of products intended for wholesale customers

Wholesale customers mean persons who are not retail customers

(16) Design and manufacture of products intended for retail customers

(17) Production and distribution of marketing materials and communications

This includes financial promotions

(18) Customer service

This means dealing with clients after the point of sale, including queries and fulfilment of client requests

(19) Customer complaints handling

This includes the firm's compliance with DISP.

It also includes:

(1) any similar procedures relating to activities that do not come under the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service;

(2) activities that take place outside the UK; and

(3) activities that are not subject to any ombudsman service.

(20) Collection and recovering amounts owed to a firm by its customers

Dealing with customers in arrears

‘Customer’ means any person falling into any of the definitions of client in the Glossary so far as they apply to the FCA's Handbook. The definition is extended to cover all services provided by the firm and not just those that are provided in the course of carrying on a regulated activity or an ancillary service.

(21) Middle office

This means risk management and controls in relation to, and accounting for, transactions in securities or derivatives

(22) The firm's information technology

(23) Business continuity planning

This means the functions described in SYSC 4.1.6R and SYSC 4.1.7R

(24) Human resources

This includes recruitment, training and competence and performance monitoring

(25) Incentive schemes for the firm's staff

This is not limited to schemes based on sales.

(26) Providing information in relation to a specified benchmark

(27) Administering a specified benchmark

Note (1): The purpose of this annex is explained in SYSC 4.5 (Management responsibilities maps for UK2 relevant authorised persons) and SYSC 4.7.37G. This annex is also referred to in SYSC 4.6 (Management responsibilities maps for non-UK relevant authorised persons) and SYSC 4.8 (Senior management responsibilities for third-country relevant authorised persons: allocation of responsibilities) (see SYSC 4.6.14 and SYSC 4.8.35).2

Note (2): A firm does not have to use the split of activities in this annex for the purposes in Note (1). If a firm does decide to use it, it may adapt it to suit its management arrangements better.

For example, a firm may find the split of activities into retail and wholesale activities unsuitable. If so, the firm might:

(a) treat retail and wholesale activities together; or

(b) use its own definition of retail and wholesale activities.
PERG 9.7.2GRP
The characteristics that a reasonable investor can be expected to have will inform the use of judgment required by the 'expectation test' and the 'satisfaction test'. These tests relate to the investor's ability to realise an investment within a reasonable period and to do so on the basis of the net value of its assets. In the FCA's view, the characteristics of the reasonable investor include:(1) sound judgment based on good sense;(2) some knowledge of, and possibly experience
COLL 5.5.9RRP
(1) An ICVC or a depositary for the account of an authorised fund must not provide any guarantee or indemnity in respect of the obligation of any person.(2) None of the scheme property of an authorised fund may be used to discharge any obligation arising under a guarantee or indemnity with respect to the obligation of any person.(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to:(a) any indemnity or guarantee given for margin requirements where the derivatives or forward transactions
BIPRU 9.4.18GRP
2An originator should clearly state the scope of the waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.4.11R and BIPRU 9.4.12R it is seeking in its application. For example, residential mortgage backed securities may be subdivided into prime and sub-prime with only one sub-category within the scope of the waiver. Relevant asset classes may therefore be defined according to a firm's internal usage of terms.
RCB 3.2.2DRP
Before providing the confirmation required by this section, the issuer must obtain and consider written advice or reports from suitable independent third parties1 such as the asset pool monitor1 and, where appropriate, lawyers.11
PERG 9.11.1GRP

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question

Answer

1

Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?

In the FCA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).

2

Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?

In the FCA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.

3

Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?

The FCA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FCA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FCA view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FCA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.

4

Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?

In the FCA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).

5

In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?

In the FCA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.

  • The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means.
  • The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFCA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise.
  • Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.

6

Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?

In the FCA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).

7

Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?

In the FCA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.

8

Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?

In the FCA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).

9

Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?

In the FCA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).
MAR 8.3.15GRP
To meet the financial resources requirement in MAR 8.3.13R (2), the FCA expects a benchmark administrator to hold both sufficient liquid financial assets and net capital to be able to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark.11(1) net capital 1 can include common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves, other instruments generally classified as common equity tier one capital or additional tier one capital and may include interim earnings that have
EG 11.2.1RP
2In deciding whether to exercise its powers to seek or require restitution under sections 382, 383 or 384 of the Act, the FCA will consider all the circumstances of the case. The factors which the FCA will consider may include, but are not limited to, those set out below. (1) Are the profits quantifiable? The FCA will consider whether quantifiable profits have been made which are owed to identifiable persons. In certain circumstances it may be difficult to prove that the conduct
COND 1.3.5UKRP
1Paragraph 1A of Schedule 6 to the Act(1) "assets" includes contingent assets;"consolidated supervision" has the same meaning as in section 3M(a);"consumer" has the meaning given by section 425A(b);"financial crime" is to be read with section 1H(3)(c);"functions", in relation to either the FCA or the PRA, means the functions conferred on that regulator by or under this Act;"liabilities" includes contingent liabilities; "relevant directives" has the same meaning as in section 3M;