Related provisions for DISP App 1.4.12

REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing)

Reg 13

REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources)

Reg 14

REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability)

In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FCA3 will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body.

Reg 15

REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing)

Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1

REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors)

Reg 17

REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities)

The FCA3 shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation.

Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20

REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services)

Reg 17(2)(d) and 21

REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording)

Reg 17(2)(e)

REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse)

Reg 17(2)(g)

REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody)

REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP:

Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK).

Reg 17(2)(h)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP:

REC 2.12.11 G

In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in emissions auction products2 the FCA3 may have regard to:

(1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those emissions auction products2 and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media;

(2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and

(3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse.

REC 2.12.12 G

An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of emissions auction products2 to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.

Reg 17(2)(c)

REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards)

Reg 18

REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation)

Reg 19

REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline)

Reg 22

REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints)

Reg 23

PERG 2:

Authorisation and regulated activities

• an unauthorised person wishing to find out whether he needs to be authorised or exempt
• an authorised person wishing to know whether he needs to vary hisPart 4A permission

• the regulatory scope of the Act
• the Regulated Activities Order
• the Exemption Order
• the Business Order

PERG 3A:8

Guidance on the scope of the Electronic Money Regulations8

a person who needs to know

• whether a particular electronic payment product is8electronic money8 and whether the person issuing it needs to be8 authorised or registered under the Electronic Money Regulations8

• the scope of the8Electronic Money Regulations8

PERG 4:

Regulated activities connected with mortgages

any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FCA regulation. This is likely to include:

• lenders
• administration service providers
• mortgage brokers and advisers

the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages

PERG 5:

Insurance

mediation

activities

any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FCA regulation. This is likely to include:

• insurance brokers
• insurance advisers
• insurance undertakings
• other persons involved in the sale or administration of contracts of insurance, where these activities are secondary to their main business.

the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance

PERG 6:

Identification of contracts of insurance

any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance

the general principles and range of specific factors that the FCA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance

PERG 7:

Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification

any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service

• the circumstances in which such persons will be carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments or advising on regulated mortgage contracts (including where a request for a certificate may be appropriate)
• how theFCA will exercise its power to grant certificates

PERG 8:

Financial promotion and related activities

any person who needs to know

• whether his communications are financial promotions or are subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act or both
• whether his activities in making or helping others to make financial promotions are regulated activities.
• whether he is marketing an AIF.11

• the scope of the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act and the main exemptions provided
• the circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may themselves be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption
• the marketing of an AIF.11

PERG 9:

Meaning of open-ended investment company

any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme.

the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company

PERG 10:

Activities related to pension schemes

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1

• the regulated activities that arise in connection with the establishment and operation of pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant
• the circumstances in which financial promotions about pension schemes may be exempt from the restriction in section 21 of the Act1

4PERG 11:

Property investment clubs and land investment schemes

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.

• the regulated activities that may arise in connection with the establishment and operation of property investment clubs and land investment schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant
• the extent to which the financial promotion restriction in section 21 of the Act applies

2PERG 12:

Running or advising on personal pension schemes

any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities

the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant

3PERG 13:

Guidance on the scope of MiFID and CRD IV12

Any UK person who needs to know whether MiFID or the CRD and EUCRR (which allow the recast CAD to continue to apply to certain firms)9as implemented in the UK apply to him5

the scope of MiFID and the CRD and EUCRR.5

3PERG 14:

Home reversion,7 home finance and regulated sale and rent back 7activities

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans,7home purchase plans or regulated sale and rent back agreements7will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.

• the regulated activities that arise in connection with home reversion plans,7 home purchase plansand regulated sale and rent back agreements7and any exclusions that may be relevant
• the circumstances in which financial promotions about home reversion plans,7home purchase plansand regulated sale and rent back agreements7may be made without breaching the restriction in section 21 of the Act

6PERG 15: Guidance on the scope of the Payment Services Regulations 2009

Any person with an establishment in the UK who needs to know whether the Payment Services Directive, as transposed in UK legislation by the Payment Services Regulations 2009, applies to him.

Q46 applies specifically to persons providing payment services from an establishment outside the EEA to persons located in the UK.

the scope of the PSD Regulations 2009.11

11PERG 16: Scope of the Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive

any person who needs to know whether a collective investment undertaking is an AIF.

the scope of the regulated activities of managing an AIF and acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF.10

10PERG 17: Consumer credit debt counselling

Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to debts will amount to debt counselling.

The scope of the regulated activities relating to consumer credit debt counselling.

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10A.7.1 R17) and an application must be made under section 59 of the Act for approval of the individual before the function is performed. There are exceptions from this in SUP 10A.117 (Approved persons - Application).

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The appropriate regulator considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the appropriate regulator, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The appropriate regulator envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of independent,9 non-executive directors to be responsible (among other things) for overseeing the effectiveness9 of the audit process and the objectivity and independence of the external auditor9. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.