Related provisions for FEES 13.2.10
141 - 160 of 564 items.
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification 7 requirement in TC7 to pass a relevant examination from the list of appropriate qualifications 8maintained by the FCA8, the appropriate regulator will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.78878778
(1) An application or submission by a firm made under this rule must be made by submitting the form or document online at fca.org.uk using the FCA's and PRA'sonline notification and application system6.(2) A firm must use the version of the form or document made available on the electronic system referred to in (1). If the form or document is included in an Annex to this chapter, that electronic version is based on the version found in the applicable Annex to this chapter 6(which
(1) An application or submission by a firm made under this rule must be made in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).(2) If the form or document is included in an Annex to this chapter, a6firm must use the version of the form or document found in the applicable Annex to this chapter 6(which are listed in SUP 10C.15.3G).
2(1) A firmarranging a payment protection contract must:2(a) 2take reasonable steps to ensure that the customer only buys a policy under which he is eligible to claim benefits; and(b) 2if, at any time while arranging the policy, it finds that parts of the cover do not apply, inform the customer so he can take an informed decision on whether to buy the policy.(2) This rule does not apply to payment protection contractarranged as part of a packaged bank account.2
2(1) For a typical payment protection contract the reasonable steps required in the first part of the eligibility rule are likely to include checking that the customer meets any qualifying requirements for different parts of the policy.2(2) 2This guidance does not apply to payment protection contractsarranged as part of a packaged bank account.
(1) 32Throughout the term of a policy included in a packaged bank account, a firm must provide the customer with an eligibility statement, in writing,3 on an annual basis. This statement must set out any qualifying requirements to claim each of the benefits under the policy and recommend that the customer reviews his circumstances and whether he meets these requirements.(1A) 7Where any policy (except for private health or medical insurance, and pet insurance) included in a packaged
(1) The distance marketing rules in CONC 2.6, including the right to cancel in CONC 11, apply to firms with respect to distance contracts which are credit agreements, consumer hire agreements and agreements the subject matter of which comprises, or relates to, debt counselling, debt adjusting, providing credit information services and providing credit references. CONC 11 excludes various credit agreements from the right to cancel.(2) Where a consumer uses the right to cancel under
A firm must ensure that the obligations of the customer in relation to the amount, or the timing of payment, of its fees or charges:(1) do not have the effect that the customer pays all, or substantially all, of those fees in priority to making repayments to lenders in accordance with the debt management plan; and(2) do not undermine the customer's ability to make (through the firm acting on the customer's behalf) significant repayments to the customer'slenders throughout the
(1) A firm must not in a financial promotion or a communication to a customer state or imply3 that credit is available regardless of the customer’s financial circumstances or status.[Note: paragraphs 3.7o of CBG and 5.2 of ILG](2) This rule does not apply to a financial promotion or communication relating to a credit agreement under which a person takes an article in pawn and the customer’s total financial liability (including capital, interest and all other charges) is limited
A firm should in a financial promotion or other communication which includes a premium rate telephone number indicate in a prominent way the likely total cost of a premium rate call including the price per minute of a call, the likely duration of calls and the total cost a customer would incur if the customer calls for the full estimated duration.Firms should note the effect of the call charges rule in GEN 7.2[Note: paragraphs 3.9h of CBG and 3.18x (box) of DMG]
Examples of practices that are likely to contravene the clear, fair and not misleading rule in CONC 3.3.1 R include:(1) stating or implying that a firm is a lender (where this is not the case);[Note: paragraph 3.7e (box) of CBG](2) misleading a customer as to the availability of a particular credit product; [Note: paragraph 3.9p of CBG(3) concealing or misrepresenting the identity or name of the firm; [Note: paragraph 3.7g (box) of CBG(4) using false testimonials, endorsements
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of:(a) the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted; or8(b) in the case of firms in industry blocks 2 and 4, the gross written premium for fees purposes as defined in FEES 4 Annex 1AR
(1) When calculating the PRR of the protection seller, unless specified differently by other rules and subject to (2), the notional amount of the credit derivative contract must be used. For the purpose of calculating the specific riskPRR charge, other than for total return swaps, the maturity of the credit derivative contract is applicable instead of the maturity of the obligation.4(2) When calculating the PRR of the protection seller, a firm may choose to replace the notional
A second-asset-to-default credit derivative creates a position for the notional amount in an obligation of each reference entity less one (that with the lowest specific riskPRR requirement). If the size of the maximum credit event payment is lower than the PRR requirement under the method in the first sentence of this rule, this amount may be taken as the PRR requirement for specific risk.
(1) BIPRU 7.11.14R - BIPRU 7.11.17R relate to specific riskPRR for trading bookpositions hedged by credit derivatives for the purposes of the calculation of the securities PRR.(2) A firm may take an allowance for protection provided by credit derivatives for the purposes in (1) in accordance with the principles set out in the rules referred to in (1).(3) [deleted]44
(1) 2Full-scope UK AIFMs are advised that ESMA published Guidelines on sound remuneration policies under the AIFMD on 3 July 2013 (Guidelines on sound remuneration policies under the AIFMD, 03.07.2013|ESMA/2013/232)4, which full-scope UK AIFMs should comply with in applying the rules in this section. (2) The FCA has provided additional guidance on the application of principles of proportionality to remuneration policies of AIFM. The guidance also addresses several other aspects
(1) 2Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule in SYSC 19B.1.4 R, the FCA does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual ("X"), both of the following conditions are satisfied:(a) Condition 1 is that X’s variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that X’s total remuneration is no more than £500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are
(1) Subject to the legal structure of the AIF and the instrument constituting the fund, an AIFM must ensure that a substantial portion, and in any event at least 50% of any variable remuneration, consists of units or shares of the AIF concerned, or equivalent ownership interests, or share-linked instruments or equivalent non-cash instruments. However, if the management of AIFs accounts for less than 50% of the total portfolio managed by the AIFM, the minimum of 50 % does not apply.(2)
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the FCA28 no later than the due date, specified for that report.4949(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the FCA28 no later than the first business day after the due date. 4949(3) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FCA28 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which
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(1) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(1)]5(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(2)]5(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(3)]5(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.3R]5(5) [deleted]5(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.4.3R]5(7) [deleted
(1) If any of the details relating to:(a) the arrangements in relation to any of a firm'sFCA-approved SMF managers; or(b) any FCA-designated senior management functions of one of its FCA-approved SMF managers;are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R4).(2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This rule does not apply to anything required to be notified under
(1) If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of the fitness and propriety of an FCA-approved SMF manager, or of candidate to be one (see FIT), it must inform the FCA either:(a) on Form D; or(b) if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA, by email or fax;as soon as practicable and, in any case, within seven business days.(2) This rule does not apply to anything required to be notified under SUP 10C.14.5R
If a firm is required to notify the FCA about an FCA-approved SMF manager under any of the following:(1) section 63(2A) of the Act (Duty to notify regulator of grounds for withdrawal of approval); or2(2) [deleted]2(3) section 64C of the Act (Requirement for 4authorised persons to notify regulator of disciplinary action);it must give that notification:(4) under SUP 10C.14.5R (Form C) if that rule applies; (5) under SUP 10C.14.7R (Qualified Form C) if that rule applies; or(6) (in
(1) Whenever a firm provides a consumer with information specific to the amount that the consumer wants to borrow on a particular MCD regulated mortgage contract, following an assessment of the consumer's needs and circumstances to comply with MCOB 4.7A.2 R, it must give, clearly and prominently, the following information:(a) the same information on the firm's product range as is required by MCOB 4.4A.1 R, MCOB 4.4A.2 R and MCOB 4.4A.4R (1) (which require firms to provide information
To demonstrate compliance with MCOB 5A.3.10R (1), a firm may wish to consider, for example, doing one or more of the following actions: (1) giving the messages to the consumer in a durable medium;(2) building the requirements into the firm's training of staff, as evidenced by its training and compliance manuals;(3) insert appropriate prompts into paper-based or automated sales systems;(4) having procedures to monitor compliance by its staff with that rule.What is required in each
(1) Whenever, as part of an execution-only sale (or potential execution-only sale), a consumer provides a firm with the information in MCOB 4.8A.14R (1), MCOB 4.8A.14R (2) or (3), the firm must inform the consumer, clearly and prominently, that the consumer has the right to request an ESIS for any MCD regulated mortgage contract which the firm is able to offer the consumer.(2) A firm need not give the information in (1) if it has previously given that information in compliance
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. The PRA has exercised its power to make such rules in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Actuaries; and PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Actuarial Requirements.5 The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3 duties.636666663336
This chapter defines the relationship between firms and their actuaries3 and clarifies the role which actuaries3 play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The chapter sets out rules and guidance on the appointment of actuaries3, and the termination of their3 term of office, as well as setting out their respective rights and duties. The purpose of the chapter is to ensure that:3333(1) long-term
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. Solvency II firms are required to have an actuarial function. Solvency II firms are not required to appoint an external actuary to fulfil the actuarial function for the purposes of rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, but they must do so if they do not have the internal capability
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1The duty in section 300B(1) of the Act does not apply to any of the following:(1) any regulatory provision which is required under 6any enactment or rule of law in the United Kingdom; or22(2) (a) the specification of the standard terms of any derivative which a UK RIE proposes to admission to trading, or the amendment of the standard terms of any derivative already admitted to trading; or(b) the specification or any amendment of standard terms relating to the provision of clearing
References in TC 4.1.4R to a relevant individual’s knowledge and competence are to the knowledge and competence necessary to ensure that the firm, on behalf of which the relevant individual acts, is able to meet its obligations under:(1) those rules which implemented3 articles 24 and 25 of MiFID (including those rules which implemented3 related provisions under the MiFID Delegated Directive); and(2) related provisions of the MiFID Org Regulation.
A credit union must provide the FCA, once a year, with a report in the format set out in CREDS 9 Annex 1 R (Credit Union complaints return) which contains (for the relevant reporting period) information about:(1) the total number of complaints received by the credit union;(2) (for the product/service groupings within section 5)3 the number of complaints closed by the credit union:(a) within eight weeks of receipt; and(b) more than eight weeks after receipt;(2A) (for other lending
(1) The clear, fair and not misleading rule in CONC 3.3.1 R applies to a communication with a customer or the communication or approval for1communication of a financial promotion in relation to debt counselling or debt adjusting and in relation to a communication with a customer in relation to providing credit information services. (2) In the light of the complexity of debt counselling, it is unlikely that media which provide restricted space for messages would be a suitable means
4Firms are reminded of:(1) the guidance in CONC 3.3.10G(6) to (8) in relation to debt solutions; and(2) the rule in CONC 8.2.4R which requires firms to notify the customer that free debt counselling, debt adjusting and providing of credit information services is available and that the customer can find out more by contacting MoneyHelper7.
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69:8(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf
1An actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function must:(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on key aspects of the discretion to be exercised affecting those classes of the with-profits business of the firm in respect of which he has been appointed;(2) [deleted]88(2A) where the firm is a Solvency II firm, advise the firm'sgoverning body as to whether the assumptions used to calculate the future discretionary