Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
81 - 100 of 486 items.
Any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or exempt from the need for authorisation. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Authorisation and regulated activities) has further guidance on these consequences.2
A person who is concerned to know whether their proposed insurance distribution activities4 may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions:4(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts of insurance))?(2) if so, will I be carrying on any insurance distribution activity4 (see PERG 5.5 (The regulated activities: dealing in contracts as agent) to PERG 5.11 (Other aspects of exclusions))?(3) if so, will I be carrying on
The United Kingdom5implemented the IDD (and the IMD before it)4, in part, through secondary legislation, which applies4 pre-existing regulated activities (slightly amended) in the Regulated Activities Order to the component elements of the insurance distribution and reinsurance distribution definitions in the IDD4 (see PERG 5.2.5 G and the text of IDD articles 2.1(1), 2.1(2) and 2.24 in PERG 5.16.2G4).
(1) This chapter contains the recognition requirements for UK RIEs (other than RAPs)76and sets out guidance on those requirements. 65(2) This chapter also contains “Notes” with informative text in relation to MiFID/MiFIR requirements applicable directly to UK RIEs operating trading venues.5(3) This chapter directs UK RIEs to certain recognition requirements and guidance on those requirements found in other parts of the Handbook.5443423
These recognition requirements must be satisfied by applicants for UK RIE4 status before recognition is granted and by all UK RIEs4 at all times while they are recognised. In addition the MiFID implementing requirements must be satisfied by applicants for UK RIE status before recognition is granted and by all UK RIEs at all times while they are recognised. 2The same standards apply both on initial recognition and throughout the period recognised body status is held. The term UK
(1) The paragraphs in the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations are grouped in this sourcebook in sections which give guidance on the same subject for UK RIEs.44(2) The table in REC 2.1.4 G indicates in which section each of those paragraphs (and the associated guidance) can be found.2
Location of recognition requirements and guidance
Recognition Requirements Regulations |
Subject |
|
Regulation 6 |
Method of satisfying recognition requirements |
2.2 |
Part I of the Schedule |
UK RIE recognition requirements |
|
Paragraph 1 |
Financial resources |
2.3 |
Paragraph 2 |
Suitability |
2.4 |
5Paragraphs 2A and 2B |
Management Body |
2.4A |
Paragraphs 3, 3A, 3B, 3C, 3D, 3E, 3G and 3H5 |
Systems and controls, market making agreements, halting trading, direct electronic access, co-location services, fee structures, algorithmic trading, tick size regimes, synchronisation of business clocks5 |
2.5 |
Paragraphs 4(1), 4(2)(aa) and 4C5 22 |
General safeguards for investors and publication of data regarding execution of transactions5 |
2.6 |
Paragraph 4(2)(a) |
Access to facilities |
2.7 |
Paragraph 4(2)(c) |
Availability of relevant information |
2.12 |
Paragraph 4(2)(d) |
Settlement |
2.8 |
Paragraph 4(2)(e) |
Transaction recording |
2.9 |
2Paragraph 4(2)(ea) |
Conflicts |
2.5 |
Paragraph 4(2)(f) and 4(2)(fa)5 |
Financial crime and market abuse |
2.10 |
Paragraph 4(2)(g) |
Custody |
2.11 |
Paragraph 4(3) |
Definition of relevant information |
2.12 |
| 2 | ||
| 2 | ||
Paragraph 6 |
Promotion and maintenance of standards |
2.13 |
Paragraph 7 |
Rules and consultation |
2.14 |
Paragraphs 7A and 9ZB (regulated markets only)5 2 |
Admission of financial instruments to trading |
2.12 |
Paragraphs 7B, 7C and 9ZC (regulated markets only)5 2 |
Access to facilities |
2.7 |
5Paragraphs 7BA & 7BB |
Position management and position reporting re commodity derivatives |
2.7A |
2Paragraph 7D |
Settlement and clearing facilitation services5 |
2.8 |
Paragraphs 7E and 7F5 2 |
Suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading |
2.6 |
Paragraph 8 |
Discipline |
2.15 |
Paragraph 9 |
Complaints |
2.16 |
Paragraphs 9A, 9B, 9C, 9D, 9E, 9F, 9G, 9H and 9ZD5 2 |
Operation of a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility5 |
2.16A/MAR 5 and MAR 5A |
5Paragraph 9ZA (regulated markets only) |
Order execution |
2.6 |
5Paragraph 9K |
Provision of data reporting services |
2.16B/ MAR 9 |
Part II of the Schedule |
UK RIE default rules in respect of market contracts |
2.174 |
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(g)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
where the [UK RIE's]facilitiesinclude making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of thosefacilities, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
Where a UK recognised body arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the recognition requirement in Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations (see REC 2.2).
(1) 1Part 6 (Marketing) of the AIFMD UK regulation contains restrictions on an AIFM or an investment firmmarketing an AIF. Such a person may not market an AIF in the UK or Gibraltar2 unless the relevant conditions set out in the AIFMD UK regulation are met.(2) The purpose of this section is to give guidance on: (a) the restrictions on an AIFM or investment firmmarketing an AIF (PERG 8.37.2 G and PERG 8.37.3 G);(b) the circumstances in which an AIFM or an investment firmmarkets
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF, a Gibraltar AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is
(1) Under the UK provisions which implemented2 article 31 AIFMD, an AIFM is required to submit the documentation and information set out in the law that implemented2 Annex III to AIFMD with its application for permission to market an AIF managed by it and to notify the FCA2 of any material changes to this documentation and information. Therefore, the prescribed documentation and information should be in materially final form before the AIFM may apply for permission to market an
(1) The restrictions on the marketing of an AIF in regulations 49 to 51 only apply to marketing that takes place in the UK. In addition, under regulation 45, an AIFM or an investment firm only markets an AIF if the investor is domiciled in the United Kingdom or Gibraltar2 or has its registered office in the United Kingdom or Gibraltar2.(2) Under regulation 2(2)(a) (Interpretation), the reference to ‘domicile’ should be construed in line with its meaning in AIFMD2. This may be
Regulation 48 (Marketing under the designation SEF” and “RVECA”3 ) provides that regulations 49 to 51 do not apply to the marketing of an AIF under the designation SEF” and “RVECA”3. To be designated as such the AIFM of the AIF is required to apply for registration of the AIF with its Home State under the EuSEF regulation or the EuVECA regulation (and in the UK make a notification under regulation 14 (Notification of new funds under the EuSEF Regulation or the EuVECA Regulation)).
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
In complying with SYSC 4.3.1 R (Responsibility of senior personnel), an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme3must ensure that its senior personnel:(1) are responsible for the implementation of the general investment policy for each scheme it manages, as defined, where relevant, in the prospectus or the instrument constituting the fund;22(2) oversee the approval of investment strategies for each scheme it manages;(3) are responsible for ensuring that the authorised fund manager3has
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme3must ensure that its senior personnel receive, on a regular basis, reports on the implementation of investment strategies and of the internal procedures for taking the investment decisions referred to in COLL 6.10.2R (2) to COLL 6.10.2R (5).[Note: article 9(5) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme 2 must establish and maintain a permanent risk management function.(2) The function referred to in (1) must be hierarchically and functionally independent from operating units, except where such independence would not be appropriate and proportionate in view of the nature, scale and complexity of the authorised fund manager’s 2 business and of each scheme it manages.(3) The authorised fund manager 2 must be able to demonstrate that:(a)
Where the risk management function required under COLL 6.11.2 R (1) is not hierarchically and functionally independent, the authorised fund manager 2 should nevertheless be able to demonstrate that its risk management process satisfies the requirements of COLL 6.12.3 R (Risk management process) and that, in particular, the appropriate safeguards have been adopted.[Note: article 12(2) third paragraph and recital (12) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) [deleted]7(2) [deleted]7(3) [deleted]72(4) [deleted]752(5) only GEN 4.1 (Application) and5GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the appropriate regulator)9 apply5 in relation to MiFID or equivalent third country business and only where that MiFID or equivalent third country business is not business falling within paragraph 2 (Transactions between an MTF operator
GEN 4.3 (Letter disclosure) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, subject to GEN 4.3.4 R (Exception: insurers). In relation to regulated claims management activities, GEN 4.3 applies with respect to activity carried on in Great Britain, even if the establishment from which it is carried on is not located in the UK (see PERG 2.4A).6
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations5; or342(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
(1) 1The general application rule in ICOBS 1.1.1 R applies to this section subject to the modifications in (2).(2) This section applies to:(a) any firm solely with respect to the activities of:(i) carrying out contracts of insurance; or(ii) managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's;in relation to general insurance contracts and, in either case, including business accepted under reinsurance to close.6(b) [deleted]6(3) In this section
The purpose of ICOBS 8.4 is to assist individuals with claims arising out of their course of employment in the United Kingdom for employers carrying on, or who carried on, business in the United Kingdom, to identify an insurer or insurers that provided employers' liability insurance (other than certain co-insurance and excess cover arrangements)2 by requiring insurers to produce an employers’ liability register and to conduct effective searches for historical policies3. In particular
(1) A firm carrying out contracts of insurance, or a managing agent managing insurance business, including in either case business accepted under reinsurance to close, which includes United Kingdom commercial lines employers' liability insurance, must:(a) produce an employers’ liability register complying with the requirements in (2) and ICOBS 8 Annex 1;(b) [deleted]5(c) [deleted]5(1A) [deleted]5(2) For the purposes of (1)(a) the employers’ liability register is required to:(a)
3A firm with actual or potential liability for United Kingdom commercial lines employers' liability insurance claims must take reasonable steps to conduct effective searches of their records when they receive a request to carry out a search for a historical policy from persons falling into one of the categories in ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(c) or a tracing office which meets the conditions in ICOBS 8.4.9 R.
(1) 3Where a firm has established that a historical policy does exist, the response should confirm what cover was provided and set out any available information that is relevant to the request received.(2) Where there is evidence to suggest that a historical policy does exist, but the firm is unable to confirm what cover was provided, the response should set out any information relevant to the request and describe the next steps (if any) the firm will take to continue the search.
(1) This chapter applies to a firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an appointed representative.1(1A) This chapter applies to a MiFID investment firm6 which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an FCA registered tied agent6.2(1B) 4This chapter applies to a CBTL firm other than a CBTL lender which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an appointed representative in relation to CBTL
2This chapter also sets out:5(1) guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a MiFID investment firm6 that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent; and5(2) the FCA’s rules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of:5(a) an FCA registered tied agent by a MiFID investment firm6;5(b) a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative; and5(c) a structured deposit appointed representative.5
Table: To whom does COCON apply? 9
9Persons to whom COCON applies |
Comments9 |
(1) An SMF manager.9 |
|
(2) An employee (“P”) of an SMCR firm12 who:9 (a) performs the function of an SMF manager;9 (b) is not an approved person to perform the function in question; and9 (c) is required to be an approved person at the time P performs that function.9 |
|
(3) An employee of an SMCR firm12 who would be performing an FCA-designated senior management function12 but for SUP 10C.3.13R (The 12-week rule). 9 |
|
(4) A certification employee of an SMCR firm12.9 |
This applies even if the certification employee has not been notified that COCON applies to them or notified of the rules that apply to them.9 |
(5) An employee of an SMCR firm who would be performing an FCA certification function but for SYSC 27.5.1R (Emergency appointments) or SYSC 27.5.3R (Temporary12 UK role). 9 12 |
|
(6) Any employee of an SMCR firm12 not coming within another row of this table, except one listed in column (2) of this row (6) of this table12. 9 |
(A)12 This row (6)12 does not apply to an employee of an SMCR firm12 who only performs functions falling within the scope of the following roles:9 (a) receptionists; (b) switchboard operators; (c) post room staff; (d) reprographics/print room staff; (e) property/facilities management; (f) events management; (g) security guards; (h) invoice processing; (i) audio visual technicians; (j) vending machine staff; (k) medical staff; (l) archive records management; (m) drivers; (n) corporate social responsibility staff; (o) taking part in following activities of the firm:14 14 (i) the firm’s activities as a data controller; or 14(ii) the firm’s activities of data processing; as defined in the data protection legislation, but subject to Note (1) of this table14;data protection legislation;10 (p) cleaners; (q) catering staff; (r) personal assistant or secretary; (s) information technology support (ie, helpdesk); and (t) human resources administrators /processors. 121417 |
(7) [deleted]12 9 |
9 |
(8) A board director of: a UK SMCR firm.12 9999 |
9 |
| 9 | |
14Note (1): A function is only within paragraph (o) of column (2) (Comments) of row (6) of this table if the function does not require the employee concerned to exercise a significant amount of discretion or judgment. |
|
(1) COCON applies to the conduct of 6conduct rules staff set out in (2) 6wherever it is performed.(2) 6This rule applies to:(a) a senior conduct rules staff member; and(b) a certification employee performing FCA certification function (6)12 (material risk takers) in the table in SYSC 27.7.3R for a UK SMCR firm12.12
(1) This rule applies to members of a firm’sconduct rules staff apart from conduct rules staff in COCON 1.1.9R. 6522(2) Subject to (3), COCON only applies to the conduct of persons to whom this rule applies (as set out in (1)) if that conduct:6(a) 6is performed from an establishment maintained in the United Kingdom by the SMCR firm; or12(b) 6involves dealing with a client of the firm in the United Kingdom from an establishment overseas.5(3) 6Paragraph (2)(b) only applies to a
6The FCA interprets the phrase ‘a client of the firm in the United Kingdom’ in COCON 1.1.10R as referring to:(1) for a client which is a body corporate, its office or branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) for a client who is an individual, a client who is in the United Kingdom at the time of the dealing.
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) an investment firm that is not a designated investment firm18;15(b) [deleted]88(c) an insurer;(ca) a UK ISPV;16(d) [deleted]18(e) a UK parent entity of an investment firm group that is subject to prudential consolidation under MIFIDPRU 2.5 or to the group capital test under MIFIDPRU 2.6;
Except as set out in SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies with respect to different types of group as follows:(1) SYSC 12.1.8 R and SYSC 12.1.10 R apply with respect to all groups, including 17financial conglomerates and groups dealt with in SYSC 12.1.13 R to 12SYSC 12.1.15 R12;1919(2) the additional requirements set out in SYSC 12.1.11 R and SYSC 12.1.12 R only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate of which notification has been made that it has been identified as a
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is a financial conglomerate of which notification has been made that it has been identified as a financial conglomerate as contemplated by regulation 2 of the Financial Groups Directive
If this rule applies under SYSC 12.1.14 R to a firm, the firm must:(1) comply with SYSC 12.1.8R (2) in relation to any UK consolidation group18of which it is a member, as well as in relation to its group; and17(2) ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any consolidation group18of which it is a member comply with the obligations set out in the following provisions on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated) basis:17(a) SYSC 4.1.1
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) 4or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations5 to give directions
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
(1) 12A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of
(1) 20
A MiFID optional exemption appointed representative is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID optional exemption firm. Such appointed representatives are not also tied agents since they do not act on behalf of a MiFID investment firm in respect of MiFID business.(2)
Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of any other
(1) 20
If a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints a person to act under its full and unconditional responsibility but only for the purpose of selling, or advising clients in relation to, structured deposits (and not any of the activities within section 39(7) of the Act24), that person will not be a tied agent in respect of that activity.(2)
Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a structured deposit appointed representative
This function is having the responsibility, alone or jointly with one or more others, under the immediate authority of the governing body:(1) for the conduct of the whole of the business (or relevant activities); or(2) in the case of a branch8 in the United Kingdom of a non-UKappointed representative8, for the conduct of all of the activities subject to the UKregulatory system.
For a branch8 in the United Kingdom of a non-UKappointed representative8, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the appointed representative8 as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under them8 with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch8 which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the appointed representative8 responsible for UK operations may, if
The FCA is5 of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business relations
In the case of a UK firm conducting portfolio management, for example, this would mean looking at where the investment decisions and management are actually carried on in order to determine where the service is undertaken. Similarly, a UK stockbroker that receives orders by telephone from a customer in France for execution on a UK exchange may be deemed to be dealing or receiving and transmitting orders within the territory of the United Kingdom. In such a case, whether the firm
The FCA considers5 that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FCA5 would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls would
(1) 2The FCA is5 of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:66(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or(b) an MTF or OTF5 operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,2the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 6.7.8 R:(1) particulars of the licence, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the ROIEs1regulated activities to which it relates;1(2) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the ROIE1 in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1(3) the date on which the revocation or modification
(1) The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives), of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution), of an electronic money issuer (including agents of an electronic money institution), of a CBTL firm, of a designated credit reference agency or of a designated finance platform which:161571111141214121411167(a) (except for regulated claims management activities and activities ancillary
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) in the EEA or Gibraltar16 if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c)
(1) 1A MiFID investment firm2 (except a collective portfolio management investment firm) must have appropriate procedures in place for its employees to report a potential or actual breach of:(a) any rule which implemented2MiFID; or(b) a requirement imposed by MiFIR or any onshored regulation which was previously an2EU regulation adopted under MiFID or MiFIR.(2) The procedures in (1) must enable employees to report internally through a specific, independent and autonomous channel.(3)
SYSC 18.6.1R applies to a third country investment firm as if it were a MiFID investment firm2 (unless it is a collective portfolio management investment firm) when the following conditions are met:(1) it carries on MiFID or equivalent third country business; and(2) it carries on the business in (1) from an establishment in the United Kingdom.
In addition to obligations under the MiFID regime2, similar whistleblowing obligations apply to miscellaneous persons subject to regulation by the FCA under the following non-exhaustive list of 2legislation:4(1) article 32(3) of the Market Abuse Regulation, as implemented in section 131AA of the Act;(2) [deleted]52(3) the UK provisions which implemented2 article 99d(5) of the UCITS Directive (see SYSC 4.1.1ER in respect of UKUCITS management companies, and COLL 6.6B.30R in respect