Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2

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CASS 12.2.2GRP
The FCA understands that in complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order, a firm is representing that it will not:(1) make use of the opt-out arrangements in CASS 7.10.9G2 to CASS 7.10.13G2; or(2) conduct business to which the client money rules do not apply because of the exemption for CRD credit institutions and approved banks in CASS 7.10.16R2 to CASS 7.10.24R2; or(3) enter into any TTCA under CASS 7.113;2in relation to business conducted pursuant to the Part
CASS 12.2.3GRP
For firms with exemptive relief under the Part 30 exemption order, the CFTC has issued certain no-action letters which, on the FCA's understanding, would allow such firms to use an LME bond arrangement as an alternative to complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order. Under an LME bond arrangement, a firm may arrange for a binding letter of credit to be issued to cover the 'secured amount' (as defined by section 30.7 of the General Regulations under the US Commodity
CASS 12.2.5RRP
A firm must notify the FCA immediately if it arranges the issue of a letter of credit for a specified client who is the named beneficiary under an LME bond arrangement.
DEPP 6A.1.1GRP
1DEPP 6A sets out the FCA's2 statement of policy with respect to:423323(1) 4the imposition of suspensions or restrictions under sections 88A, 143W8   and 206A of the Act, and the period for which those suspensions or restrictions are to have effect, as required by sections 88C(1), 89S(1) and 210(1) of the Act;4(2) 4the imposition of suspensions, conditions or limitations under section 66 of the Act, the period for which suspensions or conditions are to have effect, and the period
DEPP 6A.1.3GRP
The power to impose a suspension, restriction, condition,4 limitation or disciplinary prohibition4 is a disciplinary measure which the FCA2 may use in addition to, or instead of, imposing a financial penalty or issuing a public censure. The principal purpose of imposing such a measure3 is to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches from committing further breaches, helping to deter other persons from committing
DEPP 6A.1.4GRP
The powers to impose a suspension, restriction, condition or limitation3 in relation to authorised persons and approved persons, to impose a restriction on non-authorised parent undertakings of FCA investment firms, members of the management body and employees of non-authorised parent undertakings who are knowingly concerned in contravention of FCA rules8 and to impose a disciplinary prohibition in relation to individuals,4 are disciplinary measures;2 where the FCA2 considers
DEPP 6A.1.5GRP
3The FCA expects to impose a limitation in two situations. The FCA may impose a limitation where it considers it appropriate for an approval to cease to have effect:(1) after a certain period, unless the approved person demonstrates during the period of limitation that it is appropriate for them to be reapproved without the limitation;(2) after a short period, without giving the approved person the opportunity to demonstrate that they should be re-approved.The imposition of a
SYSC 12.1.1RRP
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) an investment firm that is not a designated investment firm18;15(b) [deleted]88(c) an insurer;(ca) a UK ISPV;16(d) [deleted]18(e) a UK parent entity of an investment firm group that is subject to prudential consolidation under MIFIDPRU 2.5 or to the group capital test under MIFIDPRU 2.6;
SYSC 12.1.10AGRP
12SYSC 1.1A.2 G sets out the general principle that the FCA will apply provisions to the extent of its powers and regulatory responsibilities. SYSC 12.1.10 R will, therefore, have limited application to a Solvency II firm.
SYSC 12.1.18GRP
Assessment of the adequacy of a group's systems and controls required by this section will form part of the FCA’s14 risk management process.
SYSC 12.1.21GRP
SYSC 12.1.8R (1) deals with the systems and controls that a firm should have in respect of the exposure it has to the rest of the group. On the other hand, the purpose of SYSC 12.1.8R (2) and the rules in this section that amplify it is to require groups to have adequate systems and controls. However a group is not a single legal entity on which obligations can be imposed. Therefore the obligations have to be placed on individual firms. The purpose of imposing the obligations
SYSC 12.1.22GRP
If both a firm and its parent undertaking are subject to SYSC 12.1.8R (2), the FCA14 would not expect systems and controls to be duplicated. In this case, the firm should assess whether and to what extent it can rely on its parent's group risk systems and controls.
APER 4.1.2GRP
4In the opinion of the FCA3, conduct of the type described in APER 4.1.3G, APER 4.1.5G, APER 4.1.6G, APER 4.1.8G, APER 4.1.10G, APER 4.1.12G, APER 4.1.13G, APER 4.1.14G or APER 4.1.15G3 does not comply with Statement of Principle 1.
APER 4.1.3GRP
3Deliberately misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission: (1) a client; or(2) his APER employer5 (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his APER employer5 under SUP 4 (Actuaries) 1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;falls within APER 4.1.2G.
APER 4.1.4GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3G includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading a client about the risks of an investment;(3) misleading a client about the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading a client about the likely performance of investment products by providing inappropriate projections of future investment returns;(5) misleading a client by informing him that products require only a single
APER 4.1.6GRP
3Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his APER employer5 (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his APER employer5 under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2G.
FINMAR 2.6.1GRP
Pursuant to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Short Selling) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/2554), the FCA will direct how notifications to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption shall be made. Such directions will be published on the FCA website and listed in FINMAR 2 Annex 1 G.
FINMAR 2.6.2GRP
(1) If the FCA considers that a natural or legal person ('P') who has notified the FCA of his intention to use either the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption does not satisfy the criteria to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption, the FCA will send a letter to P setting out the reasons why it is minded to prohibit P from using the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption.(2) P will be given
FINMAR 2.6.3GRP
If P is not satisfied with the FCA's decision to prohibit P's use of the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption, P may seek a review of the decision. This will be conducted by a group of at least three senior FCA staff. None of the group conducting the review will have been connected with the earlier decision taken in respect of P's use of the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption. The review may take place after the expiry
REC 4.1.2GRP
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) 4or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations5 to give directions
REC 4.1.3GRP
The FCA's3 general approach to supervision is intended to ensure that:3(1) the FCA3 has sufficient assurance that recognised bodies continue at all times to satisfy the recognised body requirements; and2132(2) the FCA's3 supervisory resources are allocated, and supervisory effort is applied, in ways which reflect the actual risks to the regulatory objectives. 3
REC 4.1.4GRP
In applying these principles of risk based supervision to the supervision of recognised bodies, the FCA3 has had particular regard to the special position of recognised bodies under the Act as well as to its general duties set out in section 2 of the Act (The FCA's 3general duties).33
DISP App 1.5.10GRP
23Firms proposing to offer arrangements involving some form of minimum underpinning or 'guarantee' should discuss their proposals with the FCA and1 HM Revenue and Customs1 at the earliest possible opportunity (see DISP App 1.5.8 G). The FCA will need to be satisfied that these proposals provide complainants with redress which is at least commensurate with the standard approaches contained in this appendix.
DISP App 1.5.11GRP
23One of the reasons for introducing the guidance in this appendix is to seek a reduction in the number of complaints which are referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service. If a firm writes to the complainant proposing terms for settlement which are in accordance with this appendix, the letter may include a statement that the calculation of loss and redress accords with the FCAguidance, but should not imply that this extends to the assessment of whether or not the complaint should
DISP App 1.5.12GRP
23A statement under DISP App 1.5.11 G should not give the impression that the proposed terms of settlement have been expressly endorsed by either the FCA or the Financial Ombudsman Service.
DISP App 1.5.15GRP
23'Relevant benefits' are those benefits that fall outside what is required in order that policyholders' reasonable expectations at that point of sale can be fulfilled. (The phrase 'policyholders' reasonable expectations' has technically been superseded. However, the concept now resides within the obligations imposed upon firms by FCA Principle 6 ('...a firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly....') Additionally, most of these benefits would
DTR 6.2.2RRP
An issuer or person that discloses regulated information must, at the same time, file that information with the FCA. [Note: article 19(1) of the TD]
DTR 6.2.2ARRP
3Where an issuer or person is required to file regulated information under DTR 6.2.2R, the issuer or person must, at the same time, notify the following to the FCA: (1) the legal entity identifier (LEI) of the issuer concerned; and(2) the classifications relevant to the regulated information using the classes and sub-classes in DTR 6 Annex 1R.
DTR 6.2.2BRRP
3If more than one classification is relevant to the regulated information, the issuer or person must notify all relevant classes and sub-classes to the FCA.
DTR 6.2.9GRP
[deleted]4
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

An exchange5 operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement Chapter 1 of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive—5

3

(i)

as they have effect on 1 December 20216, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act; and5

(ii)

as amended from time to time, in all other cases;5

(b)

any EU regulation originally made under Chapter 1 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is retained direct EU legislation, or any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under those provisions on or after IP completion day;5

3

which are applicable to a market operator35operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity5;

(b)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits.5

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating an SME growth market5 (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph as they have effect on IP completion day5.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading5.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under—5

(a)

section 11.2A of the Conduct of Business sourcebook;5

(b)

Articles 64 to 66 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 of 25 April 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards organisational requirements and operating conditions for investment firms and defined terms for the purposes of that Directive;5

(c)

[deleted]6

5

(d)

[deleted]6

5

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as they have effect on 1 December 20216 as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

5

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(21) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.
REC 2.16A.1AGRP
3In determining whether there are satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on its multilateral trading facility, the FCA may have regard to:(1) (in relation to transactions in derivatives which are to be cleared pursuant to article 4 of EMIR or otherwise agreed by the relevant transacting parties to be cleared) the UK recognised body’s ability to demonstrate that its multilateral trading facility
REC 2.16A.1CRRP
3In paragraphs 9H(1) and (2) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations where the UK RIE must provide information in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, such information must be provided to the FCA in writing and delivered by any one of the methods set out in REC 3.2.3R.
REC 2.16A.1DRRP
4For the purposes of complying with the requirement set out in paragraph 9E of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirement Regulations (SME Growth Markets), the rules set out by the FCA in MAR 5.10 (Operation of an SME growth market) apply to a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility as an SME growth market, as though it was an investment firm. [Note: article 33 of MiFID]
REC 2.16A.2GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility (including an SME growth market) or organised trading facility)3 complies with this chapter3, the FCA will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements. A UK RIE operating such facilities should also have regard to the guidance set out in MAR 5 (Multilateral trading facilities (MTFs)) and MAR 5A (Organised trading facilities (OTFs))3. 22
FEES 5.3.1GRP
Each financial year, the FCA and FOS Ltd will consult on the amount of the annual budget19of the Financial Ombudsman Service which is to be raised by the general levy. 19
FEES 5.3.3GRP
The FCA will determine, following consultation, the amount to be raised from each industry block. This will be based on the budgeted costs and numbers of Financial Ombudsman Service staff required to deal with the volume of complaints which the Financial Ombudsman Service expects to receive about the firms in each industry block. 8
FEES 5.3.5GRP
The FCA will specify a minimum levy for firms in each industry block.
FEES 5.3.6RRP
A firm must pay to the FCA a general levy towards the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
REC 3.13.1GRP
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FCA2to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as permitted 1under Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations or, in relation to a RAP, under regulation 13 of the RAP regulations. See REC 2.2 and REC 2A.25).214141(2) The FCA2does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which
REC 3.13.2RRP
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FCA2notice of that event, and:2(1) inform the FCA2of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;2(2) inform the FCA2of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements or (for a RAP) RAP recognition requirements54following that delegation;21(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing
REC 3.13.3RRP
A UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA2notice, where it makes an offer or agrees to undertake any relevant function of another UK recognised body.2
IPRU-INV 14.1.2RRP
A firm is not subject to consolidated supervision2 under the rules in this Chapter where any of the following conditions are fulfilled: (1) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by a competent authority other than the FCA; or (2) the firm is 2included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by the FCA under MIFIDPRU 2.5 (prudential consolidation)2; or(3) the firm is subject,
IPRU-INV 14.1.4RRP
A firm need not meet the requirements in rules 14.3.1 and 14.3.2 if: (1) there is no credit institution in the group; (2) no firm in the group deals in investments as principal, except where it is dealing solely as a result of its activity of operating a collective investment scheme2(3) [Deleted](4) the firm notifies the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability
IPRU-INV 14.1.5RRP
If the firm notifies the FCA under rule 14.1.4 that it will not apply the rules in this section, it must: (1) submit to FCA a consolidated supervision return within the time period specified by SUP 16, together with a consolidated profit and loss account; (2) ensure that each firm in the group deducts from its solo financial resources any quantifiable contingent liability in respect of other group entities; (3) ensure that the solo financial
IPRU-INV 14.1.6GRP
(1) [Deleted](2) The conditions in rule 14.1.5 aim to ensure that the firm is protected from weaknesses in other group entities. (3) In rule 14.1.5(2), contingent liabilities includes direct and indirect guarantees. (4) 14.1.5(3) aims to ensure that the expenditure-based requirement incorporates the firm's actual ongoing annual expenditures (including any share of depreciation on fixed assets) where these have been met by another group entity. (5) The FCA
SUP 15.12.1RRP
A firm must notify the FCA, using the form in SUP 15 Annex 8R, where:(a) in any 12-month period, it has upheld three complaints about matters relating to activities carried out by any one employee when acting as a retail investment adviser; or(b) it has upheld a complaint about matters relating to activities carried out by any one employee when acting as a retail investment adviser, where the redress paid exceeds £50,000.(2) A notification made under (1)(a) must be made by the
SUP 15.12.2RRP
For the purpose of SUP 15.12.1R:(1) when calculating the number of complaints in SUP 15.12.1R(1)(a), the firm should exclude complaints previously notified to the FCA under this rule;(2) redress, under SUP 15.12.1R(1)(b), should be interpreted to include an amount paid, or cost borne, by the firm, where a cash value can be readily identified, and should include:(a) amounts paid for distress and inconvenience;(b) a free transfer out to another provider for which a transfer would
SUP 15.12.3RRP
Notifications under SUP 15.12.1R must be made electronically using a method of notification prescribed by the FCA.
SUP App 3.6.7GRP
In respect of banking services, the European Commission believes that "...to determine where the activity was carried on, the place of provision of what may be termed the 'characteristic performance' of the service i.e. the essential supply for which payment is due, must be determined" (Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)). In the view of the FCA5, this requires
SUP App 3.6.8GRP
The FCA is5 of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business relations
SUP App 3.6.15GRP
The FCA considers5 that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FCA5 would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls would
SUP App 3.6.27GRP
Firms should note that, in circumstances where the FCA5 take the view that a notification would not be required, other EEA States may take a different view.66
FEES 2.3.1RRP
If it appears to the FCA or the FSCS (in relation to any FSCS levy only) that in the exceptional circumstances of a particular case, the payment of any fee, FSCS levy, FOS levy, 9SFGB levy, TPR SFGB levy or TPR DA levy7 would be inequitable, the FCA or the FSCS as relevant, may (unless FEES 2.3.2BR applies) reduce or remit all or part of the fee or levy in question which would otherwise be payable.541041023410233685410410234101
FEES 2.3.2RRP
If it appears to the FCA or the FSCS (in relation to any FSCS levy only) that in the exceptional circumstances of a particular case to which FEES 2.3.1R does not apply, the retention by the FCA, the FSCS, or the CFEB, as relevant, of a fee, FSCS levy, FOS levy, CFEB levy, SFGB levy, TPR SFGB levy or TPR DA levy7 which has been paid would be inequitable, the FCA, the FSCS or the CFEB, may (unless FEES 2.3.2BR applies) refund all or part of that fee or levy.54104102341052341033
FEES 2.3.2BRRP
1The FCA5or the FSCS2may not consider a claim under FEES 2.3.1 R and/or FEES 2.3.2 R to reduce, remit or refund any overpaid amounts paid by a fee or levy2 payer in respect of a particular period, due to a mistake of fact or law by the fee or levy2 payer, if the claim is made by the fee or levy2 payer more than 2 years after the beginning of the period to which the overpayment relates.
EG 19.12.1RP
2These Regulations implemented3 in part the Financial Conglomerates Directive,25 which imposed3 certain procedural requirements on the FCA as a competent authority under the Directive. These Regulations also made3 specific provision about the exercise of certain supervisory powers in relation to financial conglomerates. 25 Directive 2002/87/EC
EG 19.12.2RP
2The FCA's powers to vary a firm’s Part 4A permission or to impose requirements under sections 55J and 55L of the Act were3 extended under these Regulations. The FCA is able to use these powers where it is desirable to do so for the purpose of: supervision in accordance with the Financial Groups Directive Regulations3;acting in accordance with specified provisions of the Capital Requirements Regulations 20133; andacting in accordance with specified provisions that implemented
EG 19.12.3RP
2The duty imposed by section 55B(3) (The threshold conditions) of the Act does not prevent the FCA from exercising its own-initiative power for these purposes. But subject to that, when exercising this power under the Regulations, the FCA will do so in a manner consistent with its approach generally to variation under the Act.
SYSC 4.2.4GRP
At least two independent minds should be applied to the formulation and implementation of the policies of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 and the UK branch of a third country firm9. Where a firm1 nominates just two individuals to direct its business, the FCA9 will not regard them as both effectively directing the business where one of them makes some, albeit significant, decisions relating to only a few aspects of the business. Each should
SYSC 4.2.5GRP
Where there are more than two individuals directing the business of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 or the UK branch of a third country firm9,1 the FCA9 does not regard it as necessary for all of these individuals to be involved in all decisions relating to the determination of strategy and general direction. However, at least two individuals should be involved in all such decisions. Both individuals' judgement should be engaged so that major
SYSC 4.2.7RRP
A full-scope UK AIFM must notify the FCA of the names of the senior personnel of the firm and of every person succeeding them in office.[Note: article 8(1)(c) of AIFMD]
SYSC 4.2.8GRP
Where the senior personnel of a full-scope UK AIFM will carry out a FCA8governing function and the firm has applied for the FCA's approval under section 59 of the Act, this will be considered sufficient to comply with SYSC 4.2.7 R.88
REC 2.15.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules (including3 its settlement arrangements), the FCA3 may have regard to:33(1) the UK recognised body's ability to:(a) monitor and oversee the use of its facilities;(b) assess its members' compliance with its rules (and settlement arrangements, where appropriate);(c) assess the significance of any non-compliance;(d) take appropriate disciplinary action against
REC 2.15.4GRP
In assessing whether the procedures made by a UK recognised body to investigate complaints about the users of its facilities are satisfactory, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) whether these procedures include arrangements which enable the UK recognised body to:(a) acknowledge complaints promptly;(b) consider and investigate these complaints objectively, promptly and thoroughly; (c) provide a timely reply to the complainant; and(d) keep adequate records of complaints and investigations;(2)
REC 2.15.5GRP
In assessing whether the arrangements include procedures for the fair, independent and impartial resolution of appeals against decisions of a UK recognised body, the FCA3 may have regard to at least the following factors: 3(1) the appeal procedures of the UK recognised body, including the composition and roles of any appeal committees or tribunals, and their relationship to the governing body; (2) the arrangements made to ensure prompt hearings of appeals from decisions made by
REC 2.15.6GRP
In assessing whether a UK recognised body's arrangements include appropriate provision for ensuring the application of any financial penalties in ways described in the recognition requirement, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the UK recognised body's policy regarding the application of financial penalties; (2) the arrangements made for applying that policy in individual cases; but the FCA3 does not consider that it is necessary for UK recognised bodies to follow any specific
PERG 2.10.5GRP
With one exception, a5person is exempt if they are7 an appointed representative of an authorised person. In some circumstances, however, a person may be an appointed representative and not be exempt, if the person has a limited permission for certain credit-related regulated activities.5 See SUP 12 (Appointed representatives). But where an appointed representative carries on insurance distribution or reinsurance distribution, that person7 will not be exempt unless they are7 included
PERG 2.10.10GRP
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by a regulator) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FCA or PRA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FCA or PRA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds
PERG 2.10.13GRP
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FCA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
PERG 2.10.16GRP
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance distribution or reinsurance distribution, that person7 must also be included on the
COLL 4.5.7AGRP
(1) 13The FCA recognises that the annual long report, including the remuneration related disclosures in COLL 4.5.7R(7), may be required to be made available to unitholders before the completion of the authorised fund manager’s first annual performance period in which it has to comply with the UCITS Remuneration Code.(2) Under (1), the FCA expects the authorised fund manager to make best efforts to comply with COLL 4.5.7R(7) to the extent possible.(3) The authorised fund manager,
COLL 4.5.10AGRP
(1) The figure for the "return before operating charges" shown in the comparative table required by COLL 4.5.10R (1A) should include all costs and charges actually borne by the class of units it describes.(2) The indication of actual costs and charges borne by a class of units should cover pro-rata allocations of the operating charges borne by the scheme (e.g. annual management fee, fees and expenses payable to the depositary, auditors and FCA, costs of buying and selling units
COLL 4.5.14RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager must, within four months after the end of each annual accounting period and two months after the end of each half-yearly accounting period respectively, make available and publish the long reports2 prepared in accordance with COLL 4.5.7R (1) to (3)2 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 4.5.8R (1) to (2)2 (Contents of the half-yearly long report).22(2) The reports referred to in (1) must:(a) be supplied free of charge to any person on request2;2(b)
COLL 4.5.15RRP
(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS must:(a) where requested by an investor, provide copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS free of charge; and(b) file copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS with the FCA .(2) Except where an investor requests paper copies or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS may
COLL 4.5.16RRP
(1) 7The authorised fund manager of a feeder NURS must, where requested by an investor or the FCA , provide to such person copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports (or nearest equivalent documents for a qualifying master scheme that is a recognised scheme) of its qualifying master scheme free of charge.(2) Except where an investor requests paper copies or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the annual and half-yearly long reports (or nearest equivalent