Related provisions for IFPRU 6.3.12

SUP 16.12.3-AG01/01/2022

[deleted]8945

SUP 16.12.3-BG01/01/2022

[deleted]89458282

SUP 16.12.11R01/01/2022

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

89Description of data item	Firms’prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)
	MIFIDPRU investment firms	Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms
	MIFIDPRU investment firms	IPRU(INV)Chapter 3	IPRU(INV)Chapter 5	91	IPRU(INV)Chapter 13
Solvency statement	No standard format (note 4)	No standard format (note 6)	No standard format (note 4)
Balance sheet	FSA029 (note 2)	FSA029 (note 5)	FSA029	91	Section A RMAR
Income statement	FSA030 (note 2)	FSA030 (note 5)	FSA030	91	Section B RMAR
Capital adequacy	MIF001 (note 2 and 3)	FSA033 (note 5)	FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071 (note 7)	91	Section D1 RMAR
Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms	FIN067 (note 13)
ICARA assessment questionnaire	MIF007 (note 3)
Threshold conditions					Section F RMAR
Client money and client assets	FSA039	FSA039	FSA039	91	Section C RMAR
CFTC	FSA040 (note 8)	FSA040 (note 8)	FSA040 (note 8)	91	FSA040 (note 8)
Liquidity	MIF002 (notes 2, 3 and 10)
Metrics reporting	MIF003 (notes 2 and 3)
Concentration risk (non-K-CON)	MIF004 (notes 2, 3 and 11)
Concentration risk (K-CON)	MIF005 (notes 2, 3 and 11)
Group capital test	MIF006 (notes 3 and 12)
Liquidity Questionnaire	MLA-M (note 9)	MLA-M (note 9)	MLA-M (note 9)	91	MLA-M (note 9)
Note 1	All firms (except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must, when submitting the completed data item required, use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25G.
Note 2	A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.
Note 3	Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.
Note 4	Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.
Note 5	Except if the firm is an adviser (as referred to in IPRU-INV (3)-60(4)R).
Note 6	Only required in the case of an adviser (as referred to in IPRU-INV (3)-60(4)R)) that is a sole trader.
Note 7	FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed. FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.
Note 8	Only applicable to firms granted a Part 30 exemption order and operating an arrangement to cover forward profits on the London Metals Exchange.
Note 9	Only applicable to RAG 3 firms carrying on home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts, unless as at 26 April 2014 the firm’s Part 4A permission was and remains subject to a restriction preventing it from undertaking new home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts.
Note 10	Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.
Note 11	Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.
Note 12	Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.
Note 13	Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

SUP 16.12.12R30/09/2022

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R2 are set out in the table below according to firm type. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

89Data item	Non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	Investment firm group	Firm other than a MIFIDPRU investment firm
Solvency statement	Annually	Annually		Annually
FSA029	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
FSA030	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
[deleted]94				[deleted]94
FSA033				Quarterly
FSA034				Quarterly
FSA035				Quarterly
FSA039	Half yearly	Half yearly		Half yearly
FSA040	Quarterly	Quarterly		Quarterly
FIN067	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
FIN071				Quarterly
MIF001	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF002	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF003	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF004	Quarterly (note 3)		Quarterly (note 3)
MIF005	Quarterly		Quarterly
MIF006	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF007	Annually (note 4)	Annually (note 4)
Section A RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section B RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section C RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section D1 RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section F RMAR				Half yearly
MLA-M	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
Note 1	Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.
Note 2	Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.
Note 3	Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not by reference to the firm’s accounting reference date. The relevant quarters end on the last business day of March, June, September and December.
Note 4	The reporting period for MIF007 is determined by the date on which the firm reviews its ICARA process under MIFIDPRU 7.8.2R and the submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R.

SUP 16.12.13R30/09/2022

The applicable due dates for submission referred to in 11SUP 16.12.4 R11 2 are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.12 R, unless indicated otherwise.13

89 Data item	Quarterly	Half yearly	Annual
Solvency statement			3 months
FSA029	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
FSA030	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
[deleted]94	[deleted]94
FSA033	20 business days
FSA034	20 business days
FSA035	20 business days
FSA039		30 business days
FSA040	15 business days
FIN067	20 business days
FIN071	20 business days
MIF001	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF002	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF003	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF004	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF005	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF006	20 business days
MIF007	The submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R
Section A RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section B RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section C RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section D1 RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section F RMAR		30 business days
MLA-M	20 business days
Note 1	For reports relating to the position of an individual firm.
Note 2	For reports relating to the consolidated situation of an investment firm group.

SUP 16.12.15R31/03/2023

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out76 according to firm type76 in the table below:

89Description of data item	Firms’ prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)
	MIFIDPRU investment firms	Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms
		IPRU(INV) Chapter 3	IPRU(INV) Chapter 5	91	IPRU(INV) Chapter 11 (collective portfolio management firms only)	IPRU(INV) Chapter 12	IPRU(INV) Chapter 13
Solvency statement (note 2)	No standard format		No standard format		No standard format
Balance sheet	FSA029 (note 3)	FSA029	FSA029	91	FSA029	FSA029	Section A RMAR
Income statement	FSA030 (note 3)	FSA030	FSA030	91	FSA030	FSA030	Section B RMAR
Capital adequacy	MIF001 (note 3 and 4)	FSA033	FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071 (note 5)	91	FIN066	FIN069	Section D1 RMAR
ICARA assessment questionnaire	MIF007 (note 4)
Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms	FIN067 (note 9)
Threshold conditions							Section F RMAR
Volumes and types of business	FSA03895	FSA038	FSA038	91	FSA038		FSA038
Client money and client assets	FSA039	FSA039	FSA039	91	FSA039	FSA039	Section C RMAR
Liquidity	MIF002 (notes 3, 4 and 6)
Metrics monitoring	MIF003 (notes 3 and 4)
Concentration risk (non-K-CON)	MIF004 (notes 3, 4 and 7)
Concentration risk (K-CON)	MIF005 (notes 3, 4 and 7)
Group capital test	MIF006 (notes 4 and 8)
Information on P2P agreements						FIN070
Note 1	All firms, except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9, must, when submitting the completed data item required, use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.
Note 2	Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.
Note 3	A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.
Note 4	Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.
Note 5	FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed. FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.
Note 6	Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU [6].
Note 7	Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.
Note 8	Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.
Note 9	Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

SUP 16.12.16R31/03/2023

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.15 R2 are set out in the table below according to firm type. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

89 Data item	Non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	Investment firm group	Firm other than a MIFIDPRU investment firm
Solvency statement	Annually	Annually		Annually
FSA029	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
FSA030	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
[deleted]94				[deleted]94
FSA033				Quarterly
FSA034				Quarterly
FSA035				Quarterly
FSA03895	Half yearly 95	Half yearly 95		Half yearly 95
FSA039	Half yearly	Half yearly		Half yearly
FIN067	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
FIN071				Quarterly
MIF001	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF002	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF003	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF004	Quarterly (note 3)		Quarterly (note 3)
MIF005	Quarterly		Quarterly
MIF006	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF007	Annually (note 4)	Annually (note 4)
Section A RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section B RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section C RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section D1 RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section F RMAR				Half yearly 90
Note 1	Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.
Note 2	Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.
Note 3	Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not by reference to the firm’s accounting reference date. The relevant quarters end on the last business day of March, June, September and December.
Note 4	The reporting period for MIF007 is determined by the date on which the firm reviews its ICARA process under MIFIDPRU 7.8.2R and the submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R.

SUP 16.12.17R31/03/2023

The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.16 R, unless indicated otherwise.13

89 Data item	Quarterly	Half yearly	Annual
Solvency statement			3 months
FSA029	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
FSA030	20 business days
[deleted]94	[deleted]94
FSA033	20 business days
FSA034	20 business days
FSA035	20 business days
FSA03895		30 business days 95
FSA039		30 business days
FIN067	20 business days
FIN071	20 business days
MIF001	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF002	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF003	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF004	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF005	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF006	20 business days
MIF007	The submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R
Section A RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section B RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section C RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section D1 RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section F RMAR		30 business days
Note 1	For reports relating to the position of an individual firm.
Note 2	For reports relating to the consolidated situation of an investment firm group.

SUP 16.12.22AR30/09/2022

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item	Firms’ prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)
89Description of data item	MIFIDPRU investment firms	Firms subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13	Firms that are also in one or more of RAGs 2 to 6 and not subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13
Solvency statement	No standard format (note 2)
Balance sheet	FSA029 (note 3)	Section A RMAR
Income statement	FSA030 (note 3)	Section B RMAR
Capital adequacy	MIF001 (notes 3 and 6)	Section D1 RMAR (note 9)
Liquidity	MIF002 (notes 3, 4 and 6)
Metrics monitoring	MIF003 (notes 3 and 6)
Concentration risk (non-K-CON)	MIF004 (notes 3, 5 and 6)
Concentration risk (K-CON)	MIF005 (notes 3, 5 and 6)
Group capital test	MIF006 (notes 6 and 8)
ICARA assessment questionnaire	MIF007 (note 6)
Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms	FIN067 (note 10)
Professional indemnity insurance (note 11)90	Section E RMAR	Section E RMAR	Section E RMAR
Threshold conditions		Section F RMAR
Training and competence	Section G RMAR	Section G RMAR	Section G RMAR
COBS data	Section H RMAR	Section H RMAR	Section H RMAR
Client money and client assets	Section C RMAR	Section C RMAR
Fees and levies	Section J RMAR	Section J RMAR
Adviser charges	Section K RMAR (note 7)	Section K RMAR (note 7)	Section K RMAR (note 7)
Note 1	When submitting the completed data item required, a firm (except a MIFIDPRU investment firm in relation to an item reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R, or SUP 16 Annex 18AR in the case of the RMAR. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25, or SUP 16 Annex 18BG in the case of the RMAR.
Note 2	Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.
Note 3	A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.
Note 4	Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.
Note 5	Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.
Note 6	Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.
Note 7	This item only applies to firms that provide advice on retail investment products and P2P agreements.
Note 8	Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.
Note 9	Where a firm submits data items for both RAG 7 and RAG 9, the firm must complete Section D1.
Note 10	Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.
Note 11	This item only applies94 to firms that are subject to an FCA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance94. 90

SUP 16.12.23AR01/01/2022

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.22A R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.45

89 Data item	Frequency
89 Data item	Non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	Investment firm group	Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million	Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million
Solvency statement	Annually	Annually
FSA029	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
FSA030	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
FIN067	Quarterly	Quarterly
MIF001	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)
MIF002	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)
MIF003	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)
MIF004	Quarterly (note 1)		Quarterly (note 1)
MIF005	Quarterly		Quarterly
MIF006	Quarterly (note 1)	Quarterly (note 1)
MIF007	Annually (note 2)	Annually (note 2)
Section A RMAR				Half yearly	Quarterly
Section B RMAR				Half yearly	Quarterly
Section C RMAR				Half yearly	Quarterly
Section D1 RMAR				Half yearly	Quarterly
Section E RMAR	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Quarterly
Section F RMAR	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly
Section G RMAR	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly
Section H RMAR	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly	Half yearly
Section J RMAR	Annually	Annually	Annually	Annually	Annually
Section K RMAR	Annually	Annually	Annually	Annually	Annually
Note 1	Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not by reference to the firm’s accounting reference date. The relevant quarters end on the last business day of March, June, September and December.
Note 2	The reporting period for MIF007 is determined by the date on which the firm reviews its ICARA process under MIFIDPRU 7.8.2R and the submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R.

SUP 16.12.24AR01/01/2022

45The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.23A R, unless indicated otherwise.

89 Data item	Quarterly	Half yearly	Annual
Solvency statement			3 months
FSA029	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
FSA030	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
FIN067	20 business days
MIF001	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF002	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF003	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF004	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF005	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF006	20 business days
MIF007	The submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R
Section A RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section B RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section C RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section D1 RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section E RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section F RMAR		30 business days
Section G RMAR		30 business days
Section H RMAR		30 business days
Section J RMAR			30 business days
Section K RMAR		30 business days
Note 1	For reports relating to the position of an individual firm.
Note 2	For reports relating to the consolidated situation of an investment firm group.

SUP 16.12.25AR01/01/2022

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item	Firms’ prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)
	MIFIDPRU investment firms	Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms
	MIFIDPRU investment firms	IPRU(INV) Chapter 3	IPRU(INV) Chapter 5	91	IPRU(INV) Chapter 13
Solvency statement (note 2)	No standard format
Balance sheet	FSA029 (note 3)	FSA029	FSA029	91	Section A RMAR
Income statement	FSA030 (note 3)	FSA030	FSA030	91	Section B RMAR
Capital adequacy	MIF001 (notes 3 and 5)	FSA033	FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071 (note 4)	91	Section D1 RMAR
Liquidity	MIF002 (notes 3 and 5)
Metrics monitoring	MIF003 (notes 3 and 5)
Concentration risk (non-K-CON)	MIF004 (notes 3, 5 and 7)
Concentration risk (K-CON)	MIF005 (notes 3, 5 and 7)
Group capital test	MIF006 (notes 5 and 6)
ICARA assessment questionnaire	MIF007 (note 5)
Threshold conditions					Section F RMAR (note 17)
Client money and client assets	FSA039	FSA039	FSA039	91	Section C RMAR (note 13) or FSA039
Note 1	All firms (except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9) when submitting the completed data item required, must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.
Note 2	Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.
Note 3	A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.
Note 4	FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed. FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.
Note 5	Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.
Note 6	Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.
Note 7	Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

SUP 16.12.26R30/09/2022

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.25A R are set out according to the type of firm 2 in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

89 Data item	Non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm	Investment firm group	Firm other than a MIFIDPRU investment firm
Solvency statement	Annually	Annually		Annually
FSA029	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
FSA030	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly	Quarterly
[deleted] 94				[deleted] 94
FSA033				Quarterly
FSA034				Quarterly
FSA035				Quarterly
FSA039	Half yearly	Half yearly		Half yearly
FIN071				Quarterly
MIF001	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF002	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF003	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)	Quarterly (note 3)
MIF004	Quarterly (note 3)		Quarterly (note 3)
MIF005	Quarterly		Quarterly
MIF006	Quarterly	Quarterly
MIF007	Annually (note 4)	Annually (note 4)
Section A RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section B RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section C RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section D1 RMAR				Half yearly (note 1) Quarterly (note 2)
Section F RMAR				Half yearly
Note 1	Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.
Note 2	Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.
Note 3	Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not by reference to the firm’s accounting reference date. The relevant quarters end on the last business day of March, June, September and December.
Note 4	The reporting period for MIF007 is determined by the date on which the firm reviews its ICARA process under MIFIDPRU 7.8.2R and the submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R.

SUP 16.12.27R30/09/2022

The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.26 R, unless indicated otherwise13.

89 Data item	Quarterly	Half yearly	Annual
Solvency statement			3 months
FSA029	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
FSA030	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
[deleted] 94	[deleted] 94
FSA033	20 business days
FSA034	20 business days
FSA035	20 business days
FSA039		30 business days
FIN071	20 business days
MIF001	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF002	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF003	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF004	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF005	20 business days (note 1) 30 business days (note 2)
MIF006	20 business days
MIF007	The submission date that applies under MIFIDPRU 7.8.4R
Section A RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section B RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section C RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section D1 RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Section F RMAR	30 business days	30 business days
Note 1	For reports relating to the position of an individual firm.
Note 2	For reports relating to the consolidated situation of an investment firm group.

SYSC 7.1.-2G03/01/2018

19For a common platform firm:

(1)
the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and

(2)

the rules and guidance apply as set out in the table below:

Subject	Applicable rule or guidance
Risk assessment	SYSC 7.1.1G
Risk management	SYSC 7.1.4R, SYSC 7.1.4AG
Risk control: remuneration	SYSC 7.1.7BG, SYSC 7.1.7BBG
Risk control: additional provisions	SYSC 7.1.7CG, SYSC 7.1.8G, SYSC 7.1.9R to SYSC 7.1.16R
Additional rules for CCR firms	SYSC 7.1.16CR to SYSC 7.1.22R

SYSC 7.1.16CR01/01/2022

[deleted]2515

SYSC 7.1.17R01/01/2021

(1) 13The management body of a CRR firm has overall responsibility for risk management. It must devote sufficient time to the consideration of risk issues.(2) The management body of a CRR firm must be actively involved in and ensure that adequate resources are allocated to the management of all material risks addressed in the rules implementing the CRD and in the UK CRR22 as well as in the valuation of assets, the use of external ratings and internal models related to those risks.

SYSC 7.1.18R01/01/2014

(1) 13A CRR firm that is significant must establish a risk committee composed of members of the management body who do not perform any executive function in the firm. Members of the risk committee must have appropriate knowledge, skills and expertise to fully understand and monitor the risk strategy and the risk appetite of the firm.(2) The risk committee must advise the management body on the institution’s overall current and future risk appetite and assist the management body

SYSC 7.1.18AAG01/01/2022

15A CRR firm which is not a significant SYSC firm25 may combine the risk committee with the audit committee.[Note: article 76(3) of CRD]

SYSC 7.1.19R01/01/2014

(1) 13A CRR firm must ensure that the management body in its supervisory function and, where a risk committee has been established, the risk committee have adequate access to information on the risk profile of the firm and, if necessary and appropriate, to the risk management function and to external expert advice.(2) The management body in its supervisory function and, where one has been established, the risk committee must determine the nature, the amount, the format, and the

SYSC 7.1.21R01/01/2021

(1) 13A CRR firm's risk management function (article 23 of the MiFID Org Regulation19) must be independent from the operational functions and have sufficient authority, stature, resources and access to the management body.(2) The risk management function must ensure that all material risks are identified, measured and properly reported. It must be actively involved in elaborating the firm's risk strategy and in all material risk management decisions and it must be able to deliver

SYSC 7.1.22R01/01/2014

13The head of the risk management function must be an independent senior manager with distinct responsibility for the risk management function. Where the nature, scale and complexity of the activities of the CRR firm do not justify a specially appointed person, another senior person within the firm may fulfil that function, provided there is no conflict of interest. The head of the risk management function must not be removed without prior approval of the management body and must

BIPRU 8.1.2AR01/01/2021

3A firm is not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8 where any of the following conditions are fulfilled:(1) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by the FCA or PRA under the UK CRR45 ; (2) [deleted]5

BIPRU 8.1.2BR01/01/2021

3Where a group includes one or more BIPRU firms and one or more IFPRU investment firms which has permission under article 19 of the UK CRR45 (Exclusion from the scope of prudential consolidation) from the FCA not to be included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member, consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8 applies to those IFPRU investment firms and the BIPRU firms.

BIPRU 8.1.3G01/01/2021

Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR, this chapter applies provisions corresponding to5 articles 71, 73(1) and (2), 125, 5127(1), 133 and 134 of the Banking Consolidation Directive and articles 2 (in part), 22-27 and 37(1) (in part) of the Capital Adequacy Directive.33

IPRU-INV 5.4.3R01/01/2021

The own funds requirement for a firm subject to IPRU-INV 5.4.2R is the higher of:(i) £4 million for a firm which is a depositary of an authorised fund, if the authorised fund is an AIF;(ia) €125,000 for a firm which is a depositary appointed in line with FUND 3.11.12R (Eligible depositaries for UK AIFs) or a UK depositary of a non-UK AIF2;(ib) for a firm which is a depositary of a UCITS scheme, the higher of:(A) the requirement calculated depending on the selected approach in

IPRU-INV 5.4.5G01/01/2021

In accordance with IPRU-INV 5.4.3R(ib)(A)2, a firm which is a depositary of a UCITS scheme has a choice between:(a) the basic indicator approach in article 315 of the UK CRR2; and(b) the standardised approach in article 317 of the UK CRR2.

IPRU-INV 5.4.6G01/01/2022

If a firm that is the depositary of a UCITS scheme is seeking to determine its own funds requirement on the basis of the standardised approach in article 317 UK CRR3, it should notify the FCA in advance.

SYSC 12.1.14R01/01/2021

SYSC 12.1.13 R applies to a firm that is:(1) [deleted]88(2) a CRRfirm;10 or10(3) anon-CRRfirm10 that is a parent financial holding company in the United Kingdom or a UK parent financial holding company17.10

SYSC 12.1.15R01/01/2014

In the case of a firm that:(1) is aCRRfirm; and810(2) has a mixed-activity holding company as a parent undertaking;the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8 R must include sound reporting and accounting procedures and other mechanisms that are adequate to identify, measure, monitor and control transactions between the firm'sparent undertakingmixed-activity holding company and any of the mixed-activity holding company'ssubsidiary

SYSC 12.1.15AR01/01/2022

[deleted]1811

BIPRU 1.1.4G01/01/2021

BIPRU 1.1 implements in part the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR11 that permits the FCA to apply certain requirements that correspond to11 the Banking Consolidation Directive and8 the Capital Adequacy Directive. 83

BIPRU 1.1.23R01/01/2021

(1) Dealing on own account means (for the purpose of GENPRU and BIPRU) the service of dealing in any financial instruments for own account as referred to in paragraphs 3 of Part 3 of Schedule 2 to the Regulated Activities Order11, subject to (2) and (3).99(2) A11CAD investment firm that executes investors' orders for financial instruments and holds such financial instruments for its own account does not for that reason deal on own account if all of the following conditions are

SYSC 19D.1.6G01/01/2021

(1) The aim of the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code is to ensure that firms have risk-focused remuneration policies, which are consistent with and promote effective risk management and do not expose them to excessive risk. It expands upon the general organisational requirements in SYSC 4.(2) The dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code implements the main provisions of the CRD which relate to remuneration. In applying the rules in the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code,

SYSC 19D.1.9G01/01/2021

Except as provided in the Glossary, any expression used in, or for the purpose of, this chapter which is defined or used in UK CRR3 has the meaning given by, or used in, those Regulations.

SYSC 4.7.5R10/12/2018

(1) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.1R]66(2) [deleted]66(3) [deleted]6(4) [deleted]66(5) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(1)]6(6) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(2)]66(7) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.4R]6

SYSC 4.7.7R10/12/2018

[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.6R]6

IPRU-INV 11.6.2G01/01/2022

(1) A collective portfolio management investment firm may undertake the following MiFID business: portfolio management; investment advice; safekeeping and administration in relation to shares or units of collective investment undertakings; and (if it is an AIFM investment firm) reception and transmission of orders in relation to financial instruments.(2) [deleted]3111

IPRU-INV 11.6.5G01/01/2022

(1) [deleted]3212(2) [deleted]32

FEES 3.2.7R06/11/2023

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66 31
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application. 66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: 66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or 66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission 66, the fee payable is the higher of: 76 (i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 76 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 76 (4) [deleted]66 1 41 76 1 34 34 34 34 34 34 34 41	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) [deleted]56 4
(c) [deleted]66
(d) [deleted]66 27	27 27
(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R: 66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme; 66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF; 68 66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68 66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM. 58 36 66 66	Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66 36	On or before the date the application or notification66 is made 36
(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66 66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body; 66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges; 66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body; 66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company; 66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations; 66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations; 66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR; 66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10; 66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier; (xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission 70. 27 27 27	Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 27 27	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 28
28(ea) [deleted]66 56 56
(eb) [deleted]66 28
(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66 66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order; 66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme; 66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond; 66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D; 66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for: 66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or 66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act. (vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.	Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 62 56 17 74 17 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
(ga) [deleted]52 26 35 35 35
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 74 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 74 74	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) [deleted]66
(o) [deleted]65 1 1 2 2 29 5 29 74 29 29 5 56 74 29 29 29 5 5 5 74 29 29 5 74 29 29 29 74 29 29 5	[deleted]65 5 2 5 5 5 1 2 5 1 5 5 5 5 1 5 74 5 74 5 5 2 56	[deleted]65 2 74 29 29 74 29 29 74 2 29
(oa) [deleted]65 29 37 37 37 37 58 56 37 37 37 37 58 37 37	[deleted]65 37	[deleted]65 37 37 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26	(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66 (2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66 (2A) [deleted]66 (3) [deleted]66 (3A) [deleted]66 (3B) [deleted]66 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66 66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR; (ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R; (3D) [deleted]66 (4) [deleted]66 [deleted]66 30 76 44 41 30 76 76 1 1 1 74 74 37 74 37 76 76 37 1 1 37 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 37 30 37 37 37 30 37 11 11 37 37 30 37 30 76 41 11 74 1 44 44 44	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 75 13 75 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
(s) [deleted]66 5	73 73 37 59 37 59 73 73 37 73 37	37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66 8	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66. 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(ya) [deleted]66 47	47	47
(z) [deleted]66 47
(za) [deleted]66 47
(zb) [deleted]66 47	50 50 47 50 50 47 50 47 47 47 47 47 50 50
(zc) [deleted]66 47	47 47 47 47 47 47
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]74 74	74	9 16 74
(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66. 16	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66	On or before the date the application is made.
(zh) [deleted]66 16
(zi) [deleted]66 16 14
(zj) [deleted]66 16	50 50
(zk) [deleted]66 16
(zl) [deleted]66 15		18
(zm) [deleted]66 18	41 41
(zn) [deleted]66 18	41 41	21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
74(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
74(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
(zs) [deleted]66 30 31	31 30 31 31
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 76	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 76 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 76 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 76	On or before the application is made.76
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(zw) [deleted]66 45 63 63 49 63
(zx) [deleted]66 46	63
(zy) [deleted]66 46 49 56	56 63
(zz) [deleted]66 51
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.	The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).	On the date the application is made.
(zzb) [deleted]66 52
(zzc) [deleted]66 52
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies	The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66 Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.	On the date the application is made.
(zze) [deleted]66 55
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.	5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.	The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.	On the date the application is made.
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.	(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).	On or before the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation 60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

IPRU-INV 5.3.2R01/01/2022

For a firm that has a Part 4A permission for acting as trustee or depositary of a UK UCITS2, own funds has the meaning in article 4(1)(118) of the UK CRR3.

BIPRU 14.1.3G01/01/2021

Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR4, BIPRU 14 applies requirements that correspond to4:32(1) Article 3(1)(h), Article 17(1), and Article 40; and(2) Annex II;of the Capital Adequacy Directive.

BIPRU 5.1.2G01/01/2021

Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR3, BIPRU 5 applies requirements that correspond3, in part, to3 Articles 78(1) and 91 to 93 and Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive.2

BIPRU 11.1.2G01/01/2021

Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR3, the2 purpose of BIPRU 11 is to apply requirements that correspond to:32(1) (a) Article 68(3);(b) Article 72;(c) Articles 145 to 149; and(d) Annex XII;of the Banking Consolidation Directive; and(2) (a) Article 2, in part;(b) Point 3 of Article 23, in part; and(c) Article 39;of the Capital Adequacy Directive.

BIPRU 4.1.2G01/01/2021

3Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR5, BIPRU 4 applies requirements that correspond to5 the following provisions of the Banking Consolidation Directive:(1) Articles 84 - 89; and(2) Annex VII.

BIPRU 4.1.3G01/01/2021

3Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the UK CRR5, BIPRU 4 also applies requirements that correspond to5 Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive so far as it applies to the IRB approach. In particular, it applies requirements corresponding to5 (in part):(1) from Part 1 of that Annex, points 12-16, 19-22, 26(g)(ii) and 27;(2) from Part 2 of that Annex, points 8-11; and(3) from Part 3 of that Annex, points 1, 11, 20, 23-24, 58(h), 61, 64-79 and 90-93.

SYSC 4.3A.7R01/01/2021

For the purposes of SYSC 4.3A.5 R and SYSC 4.3A.6 R:(1) directorships in organisations which do not pursue predominantly commercial objectives shall not count; and(2) the following shall count as a single directorship:(a) executive or non-executive directorships held within the same group; or(b) executive or non-executive directorships held within:(i) [deleted]65(ii) undertakings (including non-financial entities) in which the firm holds a qualifying holding.[Note: article 91(4)

SYSC 4.3A.11R01/01/2014

A CRR firm that maintains a website must explain on the website how it complies with the requirements of SYSC 4.3A.1 R to SYSC 4.3A.3 R and SYSC 4.3A.4 R to SYSC 4.3A.11 R.[Note: article 96 of CRD]

COLL 6.6B.7G01/01/2022

A depositary appointed in accordance with COLL 6.6A.8R(3) needs to satisfy the capital requirements in either:(1) IPRU(INV) 5; or(2) MIFIDPRU745

COLL 6.6B.9G01/01/2022

(1) [deleted]745(2) [deleted]745

SYSC 19D.3.34R01/01/2022

A firm must ensure that variable remuneration is not paid through vehicles or methods that facilitate non-compliance with obligations arising from the Dual-regulated Remuneration Code4, the UK CRR3 or the UK legislation that implemented the3CRD.[Note: article 94(1)(q) of the CRD]

SYSC 19D.3.50R31/10/2023

[deleted]5

Related provisions for IFPRU 6.3.12

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32