Related provisions for PERG 7.5.2
Table: Disapplied or modified modules or provisions of the Handbook
Module |
Disapplication or modification |
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Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Control sourcebook (SYSC) [FCA] |
SYSC 6.1.4C R (requirement of debt management firm or credit repair firm to appoint a compliance officer) does not apply to a firm with an interim permission. SYSC 6.3.8 R (responsibility for anti-money laundering systems and controls) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission. SYSC 6.3.9 R (requirement to appoint a money laundering reporting officer) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission. |
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Fees manual (FEES) [FCA] |
The Fees manual does not apply in respect of the fee provided for in FEES 8.1.1R (1), except for the rules and guidance in FEES 2.3 and FEES 8.1. |
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Guidance applies with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 1). |
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Note 1 |
A firm is treated as having an interim permission on and after 1 April 2014 to carry on credit-related regulated activity4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 if it met the conditions set out in Chapter 4 of Part 8 of that Order. Section 55B(3) of the Act (satisfaction of threshold conditions) does not require the FCA or PRA to ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission, the threshold conditions for which that regulator is responsible. The FCA or PRA can, however, exercise its power under section 55J of the Act (variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or under section 55L of the Act (in the case of the FCA) or section 55M of the Act (in the case of the PRA) (imposition of requirements by the regulator) in relation to a firm if, among other things, it appears to the FCA or PRA that the firm is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission for which the regulator is responsible. The guidance4 in COND should be read accordingly. 4444 |
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CASS does not apply with respect to credit-related regulated activity to a firm with7: (1) only an interim permission; or (2) an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission; if the firm acts in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs 3.42 and 3.43 of the Debt management (and credit repair services) guidance (OFT366rev) previously issued by the Office of Fair Trading, as they were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014. 77577 |
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SUP 3 (Auditors), SUP 10A (FCA Approved persons), SUP 10C (FCA senior managers11 regime for approved persons in SMCR firms11) and SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) (see Note 2) do not apply: (1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or (2) with respect to a credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission,7 except that SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 apply to a firm in relation to its designated investment business that comprises operating an electronic system in relation to lending.7 87 |
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Note 2 |
A firm may not be a principal in relation to a regulated activity for which it has interim permission. A firm with interim permission may, however, be an appointed representative in relation to a regulated activity which it does not have interim permission to carry on (article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013). |
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SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A permission and to impose, vary or cancel requirements) applies: (1) with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 3); (2) with the modifications to SUP 6.3.15D9 and SUP 6.4.5D9 set out in paragraph 1.2 of this Schedule. |
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Note 3 |
If a firm with interim permission applies to the appropriate regulator under section 55A of the Act for Part 4A permission to carry on a regulated activity or under section 55H or 55I of the Act to vary a Part 4A permission that the firm has otherwise than by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 by adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates, the application may be treated by the appropriate regulator as relating also to some or all of the regulated activities for which the firm has interim permission. |
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SUP 11 (Controllers and close links) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission (see Note 4). |
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Note 4 |
A firm is not to be regarded as an authorised person for the purposes of Part 12 of the Act (control over authorised person) if it has only an interim permission (see article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013). |
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For a firm with only an interim permission (1) SUP 15.5.1 R, SUP 15.5.2 G, SUP 15.5.4 R, SUP 15.5.5 R are modified so that the words "reasonable advance", "and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name" and "and the date of the change" are omitted; and (2) SUP 15.7.1 R, SUP 15.7.4 R and SUP 15.7.5A R are modified so that a notification of a change in name, address or telephone number must be made using the online Consumer Credit Interim Permissions system available on the FCA's website. (3) If in a notification to the FCA the firm is required to enter its FRN number it must include it interim permission number. |
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SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission except for SUP 16.14.10 7776 |
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SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.10 6 |
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DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) do not apply to a person with only an interim permission. |
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DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to DISP 1.10 and DISP 1.10A effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made. |
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CONC 10 (Prudential requirements for debt management firms) does not apply: (1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or (2) with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission. |
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For a firm only with an interim permission, PERG 5.11.13 G is modified so that following the words "which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities" is added "(other than a regulated activity carried on by a firm only with an interim permission listed in article 59A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)(Amendment)(No.2) Order 2013 (SI 2013/1881) which is to be disregarded for this purpose)". Article 59A enables a firm with only an interim permission which would be able to benefit from article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order, but for carrying on the new consumer credit regulated activities to continue to do so. |
Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32
Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66 31 |
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31(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26 |
(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application. 66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: 66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or 66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 78 (i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 78 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 78 (4) [deleted]66 1417813434343434343441 |
On or before the application is made |
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30 |
As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(b) [deleted]56 4 |
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(c) [deleted]66 |
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(d) [deleted]66 27 |
2727 | |
(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R: 66(i) an application for an order declaring a scheme to be recognised under section 271A or section 272 of the Act72; 66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF; 66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68 66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM. 58366666 |
Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66 36 |
On or before the date the application or notification66 is made 36 |
(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66 66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body; 66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges; 66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body; 66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company; 66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations; 66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations; 66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR; 66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10; (xi) an application for registration71 as a third party verifier; (xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission70. 27272766 |
Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 2727 |
As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 28 |
5656 | ||
(eb) [deleted]66 28 |
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(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66 66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order; 66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme; 66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond; 66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D; 66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for: 66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or 66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act. (vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives. |
Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66 |
As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66 |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256 17761717 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made26 |
(ga) [deleted]52 26353535 |
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(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 7676 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(j) [deleted]38 |
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(k) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(l) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(m) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(n) [deleted]66 |
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(o) [deleted]65 112229529762929556762929295557629295762929297629295 |
[deleted]65 5255512515555157657655256 |
[deleted]65 276292976292976229 |
(oa) [deleted]65 2937373737585637373737583737 |
[deleted]65 37 |
[deleted]65 37373737 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26 |
(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66 (2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66 (2A) [deleted]66 (3) [deleted]66 (3A) [deleted]66 (3B) [deleted]66 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66 66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR; (ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R; (3D) [deleted]66 (4) [deleted]66 [deleted]66 3078444130787811176763776377878371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730784111761444444 |
On or before the date the application is made |
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”) |
As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
77137713777722227 | 333 | |
66 | 566 | |
(s) [deleted]66 5 |
7575375937597575377537 | 37 |
20 | ||
(u) [deleted]34 34 |
34 | 34 |
(v) [deleted]38 2222 |
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[deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(x)[deleted]38 |
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(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66 8 |
The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66. 47 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(ya) [deleted]66 47 |
47 | 47 |
(z) [deleted]66 47 |
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(za) [deleted]66 47 |
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(zb) [deleted]66 47 |
5050475050475047474747475050 | |
(zc) [deleted]66 47 |
474747474747 | |
(zd) 47 |
47 | [deleted]47 |
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12 |
Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 . |
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(zf) [deleted]76 76 |
76 | 91676 |
(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66. 16 |
The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zh) [deleted]66 16 |
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(zi) [deleted]66 1614 |
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(zj) [deleted]66 16 |
5050 | |
(zk) [deleted]66 16 |
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(zl) [deleted]66 15 |
18 | |
(zm) [deleted]66 18 |
4141 | |
(zn) [deleted]66 18 |
4141 | 21 |
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69. |
An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
76(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
76(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 3737 |
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(zs) [deleted]66 3031 |
31303131 | |
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 78 |
Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 78 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 78 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 78 |
On or before the application is made.78 |
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39 |
Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees). |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(zw) [deleted]66 4563634963 |
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(zx) [deleted]66 46 |
63 | |
(zy) [deleted]66 464956 |
63 | |
(zz) [deleted]66 51 |
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52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator. |
The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category). |
On the date the application is made. |
(zzb) [deleted]66 52 |
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(zzc) [deleted]66 52 |
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54(zzd) applications for claims management companies |
The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66 Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
(zze) [deleted]66 55 |
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61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository. |
5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency. |
The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R. |
On the date the application is made. |
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract. |
(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3). |
On or before the application is made. |
32Part 2: Primary market fees73 38 |
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(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
(3) Due date |
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
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On or before the date the application is made. |
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38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4
Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4 |
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(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
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7[Note: SYSC 15A contains requirements relating to the operational resilience of UK RIEs] |
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(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
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(a) |
the transmission of information; |
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(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
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(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
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(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
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(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
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4(f) |
the resilience of its trading systems; |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading] |
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4(g) |
the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes; |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading] |
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4(h) |
the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress; |
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4(i) |
the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls; |
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4(j) |
the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous; |
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4(k) |
the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE]; |
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4(l) |
the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed; |
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[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems] |
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4(m) |
the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached; |
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4(n) |
the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and |
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4(o) |
the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions] |
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4(3) |
For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must - |
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4(a) |
establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and |
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4(b) |
monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument. |
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4(4) |
For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing. |
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4(5) |
The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks. |
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4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must - |
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4(a) |
have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”); |
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4(b) |
have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; |
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4(c) |
monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements; |
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4(d) |
inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and |
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4(e) |
provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2. |
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4(2) |
A market making agreement must specify- |
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4(a) |
the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity; |
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4(b) |
where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b); |
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4(c) |
any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and |
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4(d) |
where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b). |
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4(3) |
For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if - |
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4(a) |
the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues; |
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4(b) |
the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and |
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4(c) |
the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market. |
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4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must be able to - |
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4(a) |
temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and |
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4(b) |
in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction. |
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4(2) |
For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account - |
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4(a) |
the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses; |
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4(b) |
the nature of the trading venue market model; and |
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4(c) |
the types of users, |
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4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading. |
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4(3) |
The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA. |
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4(4) |
If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications] |
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4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access |
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4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must - |
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4(1) |
(a) |
ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant - |
|
4(i) |
an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6 |
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4(ii) |
a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6 |
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4(iii) |
is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6 |
||
4(iv) |
is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation; |
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4(v) |
is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or |
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4(vi) |
is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act; |
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4(b) |
ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided; |
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4(c) |
ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6; |
||
4(d) |
set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access; |
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4(e) |
be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from - |
||
4(i) |
other orders; or |
||
4(ii) |
trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and |
||
4(f) |
have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems] |
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4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory] |
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4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must - |
||
4(a) |
be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory; |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory] |
|||
4(b) |
not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures] |
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4(c) |
impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted. |
||
4(2) |
Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from - |
||
4(a) |
adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained; |
||
4(b) |
calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply; |
||
4(c) |
imposing a higher fee - |
||
4(i) |
for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed; |
||
4(ii) |
on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or |
||
4(iii) |
on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique, |
||
4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity. |
|||
4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the - |
||
4(a) |
the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and |
||
4(b) |
the persons initiating those orders. |
||
4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes |
|||
4(1) |
Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in - |
||
4(a) |
shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5] |
|||
4(b) |
any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue. |
||
[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
|||
8(1A) |
The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices. |
||
[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
|||
4 (2) |
The tick size regime must - |
||
4(a) |
be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and |
||
4(b) |
adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately. |
||
4(3) |
The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
|||
4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks |
|||
4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6. |
||
4[Note:MiFID RTS 25] |