Related provisions for CONC 15.1.6
21 - 40 of 345 items.
(1) 1A firm may have concluded that an employee is unfit or has breached COCON or APER (as described in questions (E) to (F) of Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements)). The firm may later become aware of facts or matters causing it to revise its original conclusions.(2) If so, the firm may decide not to disclose in a reference its conclusion or may qualify its conclusion with supplementary information
(1) A firm may have concluded that an employee is unfit or has breached COCON or APER (as described in questions (E) to (F) of Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements)). However the firm may consider that the disclosure is incomplete without including mitigating circumstances.(2) For example, if the firm is reporting a breach of COCON it may consider that the breach is very uncharacteristic of the employee
(1) If a firm has taken disciplinary action of the type referred to in question (F) in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements) against an employee and is asked to give a reference about that employee, the firm should (if it has not already done so) consider whether the basis on which it took that action amounts to a breach of any individual conduct requirements covered by question (F). (2) If the firm decides
(1) SYSC 22.2.2R(1) to (3) may require a firm3 to disclose information that goes beyond the mandatory minimum information in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements).2(2) This may mean, for instance, that a firm should in some cases disclose a conclusion that an employee or former employee has breached COCON or APER where that conclusion was reached outside the time limits in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1
A firm must comply with this section where the following conditions are satisfied:(1) a borrower is required to have made at least two payments under the agreement before that time;(2) the total sum paid under the agreement by the borrower is less than the total sum required to have been paid before that time;(3) the amount of the shortfall is no less than the sum of the last two payments which the borrower is required to have made before that time;(4) the firm is not already
Where the notice is given under CONC 7.17.4R (1) the notice must also state the amount of the shortfall under the agreement which gave rise to the duty to give the notice and the firm must:(1) within 15 working days of receiving the borrower's request for further information about the shortfall which gave rise to the duty to give the notice, give the borrower in relation to each of the sums which comprise the shortfall, notice of:(a) the amount of the sums due which comprise the
Where the notice is given under CONC 7.17.4R (2) the notice must also contain the following information:(1) that part of the opening balance referred to in CONC 7.17.7R (5) which comprises any sum which the borrower has failed to pay in full when it became due under the agreement, whether or not such sums have been included in a previous notice;(2) the amount and date of any sums paid into the account by, or to the credit of, the borrower during the period to which the notice
A firm must comply with this section where the following conditions are satisfied:(1) a borrower is required to have made at least two repayments under the agreement;(2) the last two repayments which the borrower is required to have made before that time have not been made;(3) the firm has not already been required to give a notice under CONC 7.18.3 R in relation to the agreement;(4) the lender is not already under a duty to give the borrower notice under section 86C of the CCA;
(1) The firm must, when the firm next sends a statement to the borrower, give or send the borrower a notice including the information set out in CONC 7.18.5 R.(2) A firm must accompany the notice required by (1) with a copy of the current arrears information sheet under section 86A of the CCA with the following modifications:(-a) for the heading “Arrears” substitute “Arrears – peer-to-peer lending”;1(a) for the bullet point headed “Work out how much money you owe” substitute:“Work
The notice referred to in CONC 7.18.3 R must contain the following information:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it is given in compliance with the rules because the borrower is behind with his payments under the agreement;(2) a form of wording encouraging the borrower to discuss the state of his account with the firm;(3) the date of the notice;(4) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(5) (a) the name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate,
(1) Subject to (2), where the total amount which the borrower has failed to pay in relation to the last two payments due under the agreement prior to the date on which the firm came under a duty to give the borrower a notice under CONC 7.18.3 R is not more than £2, the notice:(a) need not include any of the information or statements referred to in CONC 7.18.4 R;(b) but, in that event, shall contain a statement in the following form:"You have failed to make two minimum paymentsFailing
(1) A firm must establish, implement and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for the disclosure of reportable concerns by whistleblowers.(2) The arrangements in (1) must at least:(a) be able effectively to handle disclosures of reportable concerns including: (i) where the whistleblower has requested confidentiality or has chosen not to reveal their identity; and(ii) allowing for disclosures to be made through a range of communication methods; (b) ensure the effective
A firm’s training and development in line with SYSC 18.3.1R(2)(g) should include:(1) for all UK-based employees:(a) a statement that the firm takes the making of reportable concerns seriously;(b) a reference to the ability to report reportable concerns to the firm and the methods for doing so;(c) examples of events that might prompt the making of a reportable concern;(d) examples of action that might be taken by the firm after receiving a reportable concern by a whistleblower,
This rule applies to an EEA SMCR banking firm3 and an overseas SMCR banking firm5.32(1) A person subject to this rule (‘P’) 2must, in the manner described in (2), communicate to its UK-based employees that they may disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or the FCA and the methods for doing so. P 2must make clear that:(a) reporting to the PRA or to the FCA is not conditional on a report first being made using P’s 2internal arrangements; (b) it is possible to report using P’s 2internal
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R9 are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the following9 to the client before undertaking business for the client:93(a) the general nature or sources of conflicts of interest, or both; and9(b) the steps taken to mitigate those risks.9(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; 9(b) clearly state
Firms3 should aim to identify and manage the conflicts of interest arising in relation to their various business lines and their group's activities under a comprehensive conflicts of interest policy. In particular, the disclosure of conflicts of interest by a firm should not exempt it from the obligation to maintain and operate the effective organisational and administrative arrangements under SYSC 10.1.7 R. While disclosure of specific conflicts of interest is required by SYSC
9A firm must treat disclosure of conflicts pursuant to SYSC 10.1.8R as a measure of last resort to be used only where the effective organisational and administrative arrangements established by the firm to prevent or manage its conflicts of interest in accordance with SYSC 10.1.7R are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of the client will be prevented.
(1) The conflicts of interest policy must include the following content:(a) it must identify in accordance with SYSC 10.1.3 R, SYSC 10.1.4 R, SYSC 10.1.4BR and SYSC 10.1.4CR (as applicable),12 by reference to the specific services and activities carried out by or on behalf of the management company16, insurance intermediary12 or firm carrying on funeral plan distribution, 16 the circumstances which constitute or may give rise to a conflict of interest entailing a material risk
6An AIFM must take all reasonable steps to avoid conflicts of interest and, when they cannot be avoided, manage, monitor and (where applicable) disclose those conflicts of interest in order to prevent them from adversely affecting the interests of the AIFs and their investors, and to ensure that the AIFs it manages are fairly treated.[Note: article 12(1)d of AIFMD]
Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure requirements and the disclosure guidance5 apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual)3 and 3Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:31. The Enforcement Guide (EG)32. [intentionally blank]3Note: A list of regulated markets can be found on the FCA website.33
The firm should consider all of its sales of payment protection contracts to the complainant in respect of re-financed loans that were rolled up into the loan covered by the payment protection contract that is the subject of the complaint. The firm should consider the cumulative financial impact on the complainant of any previous breaches or failings in those sales or, where relevant, any previous failures to disclose commission1.
1If an issuer is required to notify information to a RIS at a time when a RIS is not open for business, it may distribute the information as soon as possible to:(1) not less than two national newspapers in the United Kingdom;(2) two newswire services operating in the United Kingdom; and(3) a RIS for release as soon as it opens.
(1) Firms may use the following wording, or alternative wording which has substantively the same meaning, in any settlement agreement:“For the avoidance of doubt, nothing precludes [name of worker] from making a “protected disclosure” within the meaning of Part 4A (Protected Disclosures) of the Employment Rights Act 1996. This includes protected disclosures made about matters previously disclosed to another recipient.”(2) Compliance with (1) may be relied on as tending to establish
(1) Firms must not request that workers enter into warranties which require them to disclose to the firm that:(a) they have made a protected disclosure; or(b) they know of no information which could form the basis of a protected disclosure.(2) Firms must not use measures intended to prevent workers from making protected disclosures.
Where article 20(3) of the Market Abuse Regulation requires a disclosure of the proportions of all investment recommendations published that are “buy”, “hold”, “sell” or equivalent terms, the FCA considers it important for these equivalent terms to be consistent and meaningful to the recipients in terms of the course of actions being recommended, particularly for non-equity material.22
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FCA3 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FCA3 immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:9999(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an
(1) A firm must regard information as proprietary information if sharing that information with the public would undermine its competitive position.(2) Proprietary information may include information on products or systems which, if shared with competitors, would render a firm's investments therein less valuable.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 1 point 2]
A firm which is a significant subsidiary of:(1) a parent institution in the UK3; or(2) a parent financial holding company in the UK3;1 or2(3) a parent mixed financial holding company in the UK3;2must disclose the information specified in BIPRU 11.5.3 R to BIPRU 11.5.4 R on an individual or sub-consolidated basis.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 1 point 5]
A firm calculating risk weighted exposure amounts in accordance with the IRB approach must disclose the following information:(1) the scope of the firm'sIRB permission;(2) an explanation and review of:(a) the structure of internal rating systems and relation between internal and external ratings;(b) the use of internal estimates other than for calculating risk weighted exposure amounts in accordance with the IRB approach;(c) the process for managing and recognising credit risk
For the purposes of BIPRU 11.6.1 R (4), where a firm uses its own estimates of LGDs or conversion factors for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amounts for exposures falling into the sovereign, institution and corporate IRB exposure class1, the firm must disclose those exposures separately from exposures for which it does not use such estimates.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 3 point 1 (part)]
For the purposes of BIPRU 11.6.1 R (9), where appropriate, a firm must further decompose the information to provide analysis of PD and, for a firm using own estimates of LGDs and/or conversion factors, LGD and conversion factor outcomes against estimates provided in the quantitative risk assessment disclosures under BIPRU 11.6.1 R to BIPRU 11.6.4 R.[Note: BCD Annex XII Part 3 point 1 (part)]
A firm applying credit risk mitigation techniques must disclose the following information:(1) the policies and processes for, and an indication of the extent to which the firm makes use of, on- and off-balance sheet netting;(2) the policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;(3) a description of the main types of collateral taken by the firm;(4) the main types of guarantor and credit derivative counterparty and their creditworthiness;(5) information about market
(1) A firm (B) must provide a reference to another firm (A) as soon as reasonably practicable if:(a) A is considering:(i) permitting or appointing someone (P) to perform a controlled function; or(ii) issuing a certificate under the certification regime for P; or(iii) appointing P to another position in the table in SYSC 22.2.3R; (as explained in more detail in the table in SYSC 22.2.3R);(b) A makes a request, for a reference or other information in respect of P from B, in B’s
Table: What positions need a reference
Position |
When to obtain reference |
Comments |
(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function. |
One month before the end of the application period Where a request for a reference would require: (a) the firm requesting the reference; (b) the employer giving the reference; or (c) any other person; to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period. |
|
(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by2 authorised persons). |
Before the certificate is issued |
This includes renewing an existing certificate. |
(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook): (a) a notified non-executive director; (b) a credit union non-executive director; or (c) a key function holder. |
Not applicable |
SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1). However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1). |
3(D) A firm appointing someone to be a non-SMF board director subject to competence requirements of itself. |
Before appointment |
Only applies where the appointment is by a UK SMCR firm that is: (a) a core SMCR firm; or (b) an enhanced scope SMCR firm. |
Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public. |
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Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R. |
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Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application). |
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This rule sets out time limits about the obligation to update a reference in SYSC 22.2.4R. (1) If B still employs P, SYSC 22.2.4R applies throughout the period B remains employed.(2) If B no longer employs P, the obligation to update ends six years after P ceased to be employed by B.(3) If B no longer employs P and the matters or circumstances are not serious misconduct by P, B does not have to disclose something if it did not occur or exist in the six year period ending on the
The appropriate regulator may ask the auditor to attend meetings and to supply it with information about the firm. In complying with SUP 3.8.2 R, the auditor should attend such meetings as the appropriate regulator requests and supply it with any information the appropriate regulator may reasonably request about the firm to enable the appropriate regulator to discharge its functions under the Act.
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator may pass on to an auditor any information which it considers relevant to his function. An auditor is bound by the confidentiality provisions set out in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) in respect of confidential information he receives from the appropriate regulator. An auditor may not pass on such confidential information without lawful authority, for example if
(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.3(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an
A firm must:(1) where it has responsibility for doing so, explain the key features of a regulated credit agreement to enable the customer to make an informed choice as required by CONC 4.2.5 R;[Note: paragraphs 4.27 to 4.30 of CBG and 2.2 of ILG](2) take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that a product it wishes to recommend to a customer is not unsuitable for the customer's needs and circumstances;[Note: paragraph 4.22 of CBG](3) advise a customer to read, and allow the customer
Where a credit broker ("B") is a negotiator (within the meaning of section 56(1) of the CCA), B must, at the same time as B gives notice to a customer, under section 157(1) of the CCA (which relates to the duty to disclose on request the name and address of any credit reference agency consulted by B) also give the customer notice of the name and address of any credit reference agency of which B has been informed under CONC 2.4.2 R.[Note: regulation 3 of SI 1977/ 330]
Where a credit broker ("B") is not a negotiator (within the meaning of section 56(1) of the CCA), B must, within seven working days after receiving a request in writing for any such information, which is made by a customer within 28 days after the termination of any negotiations relating to a regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement whether on the making of the agreement or otherwise, give to the customer notice of: (1) the name and address of any credit
A firm must not:(1) make or cause to be made unsolicited calls to numbers entered on the register kept under regulation 25 or 26 of the Privacy and Electronic Communications (EC Directive) Regulations 2003 or to a customer who has notified the firm not to call the number being used to call; [Note: paragraph 3.9a of CBG](2) other than where:(a) [deleted]4(b) [deleted]4(c) [deleted]4(ca) (i) the firm has obtained the contact details of a customer (C) in the course of the sale or
(1) It is likely to be an inappropriate offer of an inducement or incentive to enter into an regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement to state that the offer in relation to the agreement will be withdrawn or the terms and conditions of the offer will worsen if the agreement is not signed immediately or within a stated period after the communication, unless the firm's offer on those terms and conditions will in fact be withdrawn or worsen in the period
The declaration for the purposes of articles 60H(1)(c) and 60Q(b) of the Regulated Activities Order must have the following form and content- 2“Declaration by high net worth borrower or hirer(articles 60H(1) and 60Q of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)2I confirm that I have received a copy of the statement of high net worth made in relation to me for the purposes of article 60H(1)(d) 2or article 60Q(c) of the Financial Services and
2Declaration by high net worth borrower under an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreementThe declaration for the purposes of CONC 1.2.10R7 must have the following form and content-
“Declaration by high net worth borrower under an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreement
7I confirm that I have received a copy of the statement of high net worth made in relation to me for the purposes of CONC 1.2.10R in the FCA’s Consumer Credit sourcebook7.
I understand that by making this declaration I
A statement of high net worth for the purposes of articles 60H(1)(d) and 60Q(c) of the Regulated Activities Order, and CONC 1.2.10R,7 must have the following form and content: 2“Statement of High Net Worth(articles 60H(1) and 60Q of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001/CONC 1.2.10R*)7I/We* (insert full name) .............................................................. of (insert address and postcode)..............................................................
A declaration for the purposes of articles 60C or 60O of the Regulated Activities Order must have the following form and content“Declaration for exemption relating to businesses(articles 60C and 60O of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)I am/We are* entering this agreement wholly or predominantly for the purposes of a business carried on by me/us or intended to be carried on by me/us.I/We* understand that I/We* will not have the benefit
(1) 1This appendix sets out how:3(a) 3a firm should handle complaints relating to the sale of a payment protection contract by the firm which express dissatisfaction about the sale, or matters related to the sale, including where there is a rejection of claims on the grounds of ineligibility or exclusion (but not matters unrelated to the sale, such as delays in claims handling); and3(b) 3a firm that is a CCA lender and which has received such a complaint should consider whether
3This appendix provides for a two-step approach to handling complaints. Firms should apply it as follows: (1) a firm which is not a CCA lender should only consider step 1;(2) a CCA lender which did not sell the payment protection contract should only consider step 2, but does not have to do so if it knows the complainant has already made a complaint about a breach or failing in respect of the same contract and the outcome was that the firm which considered that complaint concluded
3At step 2, the aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how a CCA lender should:(1) assess a complaint to establish whether failure to disclose commission gave rise to an unfair relationship under section 140A of the CCA; and(2) determine the appropriate redress (if any) to offer to a complainant.
In this appendix:(1) (a) at step 1,3 “historic interest” means the interest the complainant paid to the firm because a payment protection contract was added to a loan or credit product;3(b) at step 2, “historic interest” means in relation to any sum, the interest the complainant paid as a result of that sum being included in the loan or credit product;32(2) "simple interest" means a non-compound rate of 8% per annum;3(3) "claim" means a claim by a complainant seeking to rely upon
A firm must ensure that a financial statement sent to a lender on behalf of a customer: (1) is accurate and realistic and must present a sufficiently clear and complete account of the customer's income and expenditure, debts and the availability of surplus income; [Note: paragraph 3.24 of DMG](2) state any fees or charges being made by the firm; (3) is sent only after having obtained the customer's consent to send the statement and the customer's confirmation as to the accuracy
The format of the financial statement sent to lenders on behalf of the customer should be uniform and logically structured in a way that encourages consistent responses from lenders and reduces queries and delays. Firms may wish to use the Common Financial Statement formerly facilitated by the Money Advice Trust, the Standard Financial Statement (SFS) facilitated by MoneyHelper2, or an equivalent or similar statement.[Note: paragraph 3.24 of DMG]
A firm must:(1) take reasonable steps to verify the customer's identity, income and outgoings; [Note: paragraph 3.26a of DMG](2) seek explanations if a customer indicates expenditure which is particularly high or low; and [Note: paragraph 3.26b of DMG](3) where applicable, notify a customer that a particular lender will not deal with the firm (for whatever reason), as soon as possible after the firm becomes aware that the customer owes a debt to that lender. [Note: paragraph 3.26l