Related provisions for SUP 18.2.59D

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DISP App 3.1.2GRP
At step 1, the3 aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how the firm should:(1) assess a complaint in order to establish whether the firm's conduct of the sale failed to comply with the rules, or was otherwise in breach of the duty of care or any other requirement of the general law (taking into account relevant materials published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service and former schemes). In this appendix this is referred
GEN 4.3.1BGRP
15An example for GEN 4.3.1A G would be where a letter covers business for which the FCA is the competent authority under the the UK provisions which implemented11IDD10 and under the UK provisions which implemented11MiFID.
COLL 11.6.2RRP
(1) The commencement of winding up of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must take place no sooner than 3 months after a notification is made to its unitholders and the FCA3 informing it3 of the binding decision to wind up the master UCITS.(2) Paragraph (1) is without prejudice to any provision of the insolvency legislation in force in the United Kingdom regarding the compulsory liquidation of AUTs, ACSs1 or ICVCs.[Note: article 60(4) last sentence of the UCITS Directive]
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
REC 2.9.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least five years4; and(2) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes4: (a)
DEPP 6.5A.3GRP
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
EG 4.7.1RP
2The FCA's standard practice is generally to use statutory powers to require the production of documents, the provision of information or the answering of questions in interview. This is for reasons of fairness, transparency and efficiency. It will sometimes be appropriate to depart from this standard practice, for example: (1) For suspects or possible suspects in criminal or market abuse investigations, the FCA may prefer to question that person on a voluntary basis, possibly
SUP 3.2.1GRP
This chapter sets out rules and guidance on the role auditors play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. In determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator has regard to whether the firm has appointed auditors with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm. Auditors act as a source of information for the appropriate
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 14, SYSC 18 to10SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or SYSC 23 to 9SYSC 28A12 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344378
DISP 1.1A.21GRP
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a MiFID complaint under DISP 1.1A.20R(2) include the following: (1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2) similarities with other complaints received by the respondent; (3) relevant guidance published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and (4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar
COBS 2.4.4RRP
(1) This rule applies if a firm (F1), in the course of performing MiFID or equivalent third country business, receives an instruction to provide3 an investment or ancillary service on behalf of a client (C) through another firm (F2), if F2 is:(a) a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm; or(b) an investment firm that is:(i) a firm5; and(ii) subject to equivalent relevant requirements.(2) F1 may rely upon:(a) any information about C transmitted to it by F2; and(b)
BIPRU 8.3.24GRP
[deleted]54444
COLL 2.1.5GRP
[deleted]41222222
SUP 16.3.24GRP
SUP 2.3.12AG states that the FCA38 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The FCA’s disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4G38 (Confidentiality of information). Also, some value measures data in SUP 16.27 is used by the FCA to create published guidance. This public disclosure is to assist the FCA to discharge its public fun
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society5, a non-directive firm45or (in the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission3

54

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3

9

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A non-directive firm43

4

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3

5(2B)

(In the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R , and SUP 11.4.4 R

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21

944994494
SUP 15.13.7GRP
The MCD Order requires notification to be given immediately. The FCA expects CBTL firms to act with all due urgency in notifying it of any relevant event, and it is unlikely that the FCA will regard delay in excess of 5 working days as complying with the CBTL firm's obligations.
EG 10.2.2RP
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be
SUP 15.9.4RRP
A firm does not have to give notice to the FCA2 under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:55(1) the FCA2 or55(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Regulation 1(2) of the Financial Groups
SUP 4.2.5GRP
Actuaries3 act as a valuable source of information to the appropriate regulator4 in carrying out its functions. For example, in determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator4 has regard to whether the firm has appointed an actuary3 (or some other person with responsibility for the actuarial function required by rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business)4 with sufficient experience in the areas of business