Related provisions for IPRU-INV 12.2.1

21 - 40 of 132 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
A firm must at all times: (1) have and maintain capital resources at least equal to its relevant capital resources requirement1; and (2) be able to meet its liabilities as they fall due.
(1) 1Unless a rule provides otherwise, a firm must:(a) recognise an asset or liability; and(b) measure the amount of that asset or liability,by using the accounting principles it applies in preparing the firm's reporting form in (2).(2) The accounting principles are referred to in the Notes for completion of the Retail Mediation Activities Return (RMAR) (under the heading “Accounting Principles”) in SUP 16 Annex 18BG.8
The cover provided by the policy should be wide enough to include the liability of the firm, its appointed representatives, its tied agents, employees and its agents for breaches under the regulatory systems or civil law. If the firm operates outside the United Kingdom then the policy should cover other regulatory requirements imposed under the laws of other countries in which the firm operates.
The policy must not: (1) exclude any type of business or activity that has been carried out by the firm in the past or will be carried out by the firm during the time for which the policy is in force; or(2) exclude liabilities which are identified or crystallised as a result of regulatory action against the firm (either individually or as a member of a class of authorised persons); unless the firm holds additional capital resources, in accordance with 13.1.23R.
BIPRU 2.1.22RRP
The material exposures or material liabilities of the subsidiary undertaking referred to in BIPRU 2.1.19 R must be to the firm.
BIPRU 2.1.24RRP
A firm must be able to demonstrate fully to the appropriate regulator the circumstances and arrangements, including legal arrangements, by virtue of which there are no material practical or legal impediments, and none are foreseen, to the prompt transfer of the capital resources of the subsidiary undertaking referred to in BIPRU 2.1.19 R or repayment of liabilities when due by the subsidiary undertaking to the firm.
BIPRU 2.1.25GRP
The following are the criteria that the appropriate regulator will take into account when considering whether the condition in BIPRU 2.1.24 R is going to be met:(1) the speed with which funds can be transferred or liabilities repaid to the firm and the simplicity of the method for the transfer or repayment;(2) whether there are any interests other than those of the firm in the subsidiary undertaking and what impact those other interests may have on the firm's control over the
SUP 6.4.16GRP

Types of reports. See SUP 6.4.15 G

Category of firm

Type of report

a bank or building society

• an audited balance sheet which confirms that, in the auditor's opinion, the firm has no remaining deposit liabilities to customers;

• a report from auditors or reporting accountants;

a securities and futures firm

• a report from auditors or reporting accountants

an insurer

• an audited closing balance sheet which demonstrates that the firm has no insurance liabilities to policyholders;

• a report from the auditors or reporting accountants; and

• in some cases, an actuarial opinion as to the likelihood of any remaining liabilities to policyholders.

SUP 6.4.19GRP
The relevant regulator24 will usually not cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission24 until the firm can demonstrate that, in relation to business carried on under that permission, it has, as appropriate:2424(1) ceased carrying on regulated activities or fully run off or transferred all insurance liabilities;(2) repaid all client money and client deposits;(3) discharged custody assets and any other property belonging to clients; and(4) discharged, satisfied or resolved complaints against
SUP 6.4.20GRP
If it is not possible for a firm to demonstrate a relevant matter referred to in SUP 6.4.19 G, for example, depositors are uncontactable, the firm will be expected to have satisfied the relevant regulator24 that it has made adequate provisions for discharging any liabilities to clients which do not involve the firm carrying on regulated activities.24
SUP 6.4.22GRP
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the relevant regulator24 will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:24(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.11.34R 13 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty)24 and CASS 7.11.50 R135(Client money: allocated but unclaimed
MIPRU 4.2.1RRP
A firm must at all times ensure that it is able to meet its liabilities as they fall due.
MIPRU 4.2.3RRP
A firm must recognise an asset or liability, and measure its amount, in accordance with the relevant accounting principles applicable to it for the purpose of preparing its annual financial statements unless a rule requires otherwise.
SUP App 2.15.2GRP
A firm's run-off plan should describe how the firm proposes to manage the run-off of the with-profits fund. That description should include:(1) details of the expected duration and costs of fully running off the fund's liabilities;(2) an explanation as to how a solvent run-off will be funded; and(3) details of the firm's future strategy for managing the risks associated with the run-off of the fund.
SUP App 2.15.3GRP
A firm's run-off plan should include an explanation of its future investment strategy, including:(1) its strategy for matching the with-profits fund's liabilities with appropriate assets; and(2) any changes it expects to make to the with-profits fund's investment strategy as a result of the closure of the with-profits fund, including any changes to the proportions of different types of investments.
SUP App 2.15.9GRP

These tables belong to SUP App 2.15.8 G

Table 1 - forecast summary revenue account for the relevant with-profits fund

(1)

Premiums and claims (gross and net of reinsurance) analysed by major class of insurance business

(2)

Investment return

(3)

Expenses

(4)

Other charges and income

(5)

Taxation

(6)

Increase (decrease) in fund in financial year

(7)

Fund brought forward

(8)

Fund carried forward

Table 2 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the relevant with-profits fund

Assets analysed by type (excluding implicit items):

(1)

Equities

(2)

Land and buildings

(3)

Fixed interest investments

(4)

All other assets

(5)

Total assets (excluding implicit items)

(6)

Policyholder liabilities

(7)

Other liabilities

(8)

Total liabilities

(9)

Excess/(deficiency) of assets over liabilities before implicit items

(10)

Implicit items allocated to the with-profits fund

(11)

Long-term insurance capital requirement for the with-profits fund

(12)

Resilience capital requirement for the with-profits fund

(13)

[deleted]4

4

(14)

Net excess/(deficiency) of assets in the with-profits fund

Table 3 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the firm

L1

Surplus long-term insurance assets, with-profit fund(s)

L2

Surplus long-term insurance assets, non-profit fund(s)

L3

Total long-term insurance assets

L1+L2

L4

Total long-term insurance liabilities (excluding resilience capital requirement)

L5

Total long-term insurance fund surplus

L3-L4

L6

Shareholder fund assets

L7

Implicit items

L8

Long-term insurance capital requirement

L9

Excess of regulatory assets over long-term insurance capital requirement

L5+L6+L7-L8

L10

[deleted]4

4
4

L11

Resilience capital requirement

L12

Net excess assets

L9-L10-L11

L13

FTSE level at which the long-term insurance capital requirement would be breached

SUP 16.12.11RRP

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms

IPRU(INV)Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)Chapter 5

91

IPRU(INV)Chapter 13

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 4)

No standard format (note 6)

No standard format (note 4)

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 2)

FSA029

(note 5)

FSA029

91

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 2)

FSA030

(note 5)

FSA030

91

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(note 2 and 3)

FSA033

(note 5)

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071

(note 7)

91

Section D1 RMAR

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 13)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 3)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

91

Section C RMAR

CFTC

FSA040 (note 8)

FSA040 (note 8)

FSA040 (note 8)

91

FSA040 (note 8)

Liquidity

MIF002

(notes 2, 3 and 10)

Metrics reporting

MIF003

(notes 2 and 3)

Concentration risk (non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 2, 3 and 11)

Concentration risk (K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 2, 3 and 11)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 3 and 12)

Liquidity Questionnaire

MLA-M (note 9)

MLA-M (note 9)

MLA-M (note 9)

91

MLA-M (note 9)

Note 1

All firms (except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must, when submitting the completed data item required, use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25G.

Note 2

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 3

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 4

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 5

Except if the firm is an adviser (as referred to in IPRU-INV (3)-60(4)R).

Note 6

Only required in the case of an adviser (as referred to in IPRU-INV (3)-60(4)R)) that is a sole trader.

Note 7

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.

Note 8

Only applicable to firms granted a Part 30 exemption order and operating an arrangement to cover forward profits on the London Metals Exchange.

Note 9

Only applicable to RAG 3 firms carrying on home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts, unless as at 26 April 2014 the firm’sPart 4A permission was and remains subject to a restriction preventing it from undertaking new home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts.

Note 10

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.

Note 11

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 12

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 13

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

SUP 16.12.15RRP

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out76 according to firm type76 in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 5

91

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 11

(collective portfolio management firms only)

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 12

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

(note 2)

No standard format

No standard format

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

FSA029

FSA029

91

FSA029

FSA029

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

FSA030

FSA030

91

FSA030

FSA030

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(note 3 and 4)

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071

(note 5)

91

FIN066

FIN069

Section D1 RMAR

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 4)

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 9)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Volumes and types of business

FSA03895

FSA038

FSA038

91

FSA038

FSA038

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

91

FSA039

FSA039

Section C RMAR

Liquidity

MIF002

(notes 3, 4 and 6)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 4)

Concentration risk (non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 4 and 7)

Concentration risk (K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 4 and 7)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 4 and 8)

Information on P2P agreements

FIN070

Note 1

All firms, except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9, must, when submitting the completed data item required, use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 5

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.

Note 6

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU [6].

Note 7

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 8

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 9

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

SUP 16.12.22ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms subject to IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Firms that are also in one or more of RAGs 2 to 6 and not subject to IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

No standard format

(note 2)

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(notes 3 and 6)

Section D1 RMAR (note 9)

Liquidity

MIF002 (notes 3, 4 and 6)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 6)

Concentration risk

(non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 5 and 6)

Concentration risk

(K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 5 and 6)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 6 and 8)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 6)

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 10)

Professional indemnity insurance (note 11)90

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Training and competence

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

COBS data

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

Adviser charges

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm (except a MIFIDPRU investment firm in relation to an item reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R, or SUP 16 Annex 18AR in the case of the RMAR. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25, or SUP 16 Annex 18BG in the case of the RMAR.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.

Note 5

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 6

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 7

This item only applies to firms that provide advice on retail investment products and P2P agreements.

Note 8

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 9

Where a firm submits data items for both RAG 7 and RAG 9, the firm must complete Section D1.

Note 10

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

Note 11

This item only applies94 to firms that are subject to an FCA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance94.

90
SUP 16.12.25ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 5

91

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

(note 2)

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

FSA029

FSA029

91

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

FSA030

FSA030

91

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(notes 3 and 5)

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071

(note 4)

91

Section D1 RMAR

Liquidity

MIF002

(notes 3 and 5)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 5)

Concentration risk (non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 5 and 7)

Concentration risk (K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 5 and 7)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 5 and 6)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 5)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 17)

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

91

Section C RMAR (note 13) or FSA039

Note 1

All firms (except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9) when submitting the completed data item required, must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.

Note 5

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 6

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 7

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

PERG 8.14.21GRP
This exemption disapplies the restriction in section 21 of the Act from non-real time financial promotions or solicited real time financial promotions which are made to a person who the communicator believes on reasonable grounds to be a 16high net worth individual and which relate to certain investments. These investments must be either:7(1) shares in or debentures or alternative debentures7 of an unlisted company; or(2) warrants,certificates representing certain securities,
PERG 8.14.28GRP
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FCA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
PERG 8.14.29GRP
1(1) This exemption allows a non-real time or solicited real time financial promotion to be made to an association with a particular membership. Membership of this association must be reasonably believed to be wholly or predominantly made up of116 high net worth individuals, high net worth companies or unincorporated associations or trusts, or certified or self-certified1 sophisticated investors. The financial promotion must not relate to an investment under the terms of which
PERG 8.14.31GRP
The exemption is subject to certain conditions. In broad terms, these are that the financial promotion must be accompanied by an indication:(1) that the directors or promoters of the company have taken all reasonable care to ensure that the financial promotion is true and not misleading;(2) that the directors or promoters have not limited their liability;(3) that any person who is in doubt about the investment should consult an authorised person; and(4) that:(a) the directors
BIPRU 2.3.3GRP
Interest rate risk in the non-trading book may arise from a number of sources for example:(1) risks related to the mismatch of repricing of assets and liabilities and off balance sheet short and long-term positions;(2) risks arising from hedging exposure to one interest rate with exposure to a rate which reprices under slightly different conditions;(3) risk related to the uncertainties of occurrence of transactions e.g. when expected future transactions do not equal the actual
BIPRU 2.3.10GRP
Under GENPRU 1.2.60 R, a firm is required to make a written record of its assessments made under GENPRU 1.2. A firm's record of its approach to evaluating and managing interest rate risk as it affects the firm's non-trading activities should cover the following issues:(1) the internal definition of and boundary between "banking book" and "trading activities" (see BIPRU 1.2);(2) the definition of economic value and its consistency with the method used to value assets and liabilities
DTR 4.2.5RRP
(1) This rule applies to an issuer that is not required to prepare consolidated accounts.(2) In preparing the condensed balance sheet and the condensed profit and loss account an issuer must follow the same principles for recognising and measuring as when preparing annual financial reports.[Note: article 5(3) of the TD](3) The balance sheet and the profit and loss account must show each of the headings and subtotals included in the most recent annual financial statements of the
DTR 4.2.10RRP
(1) Responsibility statements must be made by the persons responsible within the issuer. [Note: article 5(2)(c) of the TD](2) The name and function of any person who makes a responsibility statement must be clearly indicated in the responsibility statement.[Note: article 5(2)(c) of the TD](3) For each person making a responsibility statement, the statement must confirm that to the best of his or her knowledge:(a) the condensed set of financial statements, which has been prepared
CASS 8.2.1RRP
1A mandate is any means that give a firm the ability to control a client's assets or liabilities, which meet the conditions in (1) to (5): (1) they are obtained by the firm from the client, and with the client's consent;(2) where those means are obtained in the course of, or in connection with, the firm'sinsurance distribution activity4, they are in written form at the time they are obtained from the client;(3) they are retained by the firm;(4) they put the firm in a position
CASS 8.2.2GRP
A mandate can take any form and need not state that it is a mandate. For example it could take the form of:333(1) a standalone document containing certain information conferring authority to control a client's assets or liabilities on the firm;3(2) a specific provision within a document or agreement that also relates to other matters; or3(3) an authority provided by a client orally.3
SUP 18.4.4GRP
For a transfer to another friendly society, if the conditions of 87(1) and 87(2) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 are met a report is required from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will meet the necessary margin of solvency2. Where the conditions of 87(1) and 87(3) are met the appropriate authority2 may require a report from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will have an excess of assets over liabilities.22
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the appropriate authority2 must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:2(1) confirmation must not be given if the appropriate authority2 considers that:2(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members'
SUP 18.4.37GRP
The appropriate authority2 will not decide whether to confirm the transfer or amalgamation at the hearing. A copy of its written decision, including its findings on the points made in representations, will be sent to the society(ies) and to those making representations. It will also be available to any other person on request and may be published.2
INSPRU 1.2.60GRP
The rates of mortality or morbidity should contain prudent margins for adverse deviation7. In setting those rates, a firm should take account of:(1) the systems and controls applied in underwriting long-term insurance contracts and whether they provide adequate protection against anti-selection (that is, selection against the firm) including:(a) adequately defining and identifying non-standard risks; and(b) where such risks are underwritten, allocating to them an appropriate weighting;(2)
INSPRU 1.2.61GRP
An additional provision for diseases covered by INSPRU 1.2.60G (5)(c) may be needed, in particular for unit-linked policies. In determining whether such a provision is needed a firm may take into consideration any ability to increase product charges commensurately (provided that such increase does not infringe on its regulatory duty to treat its customers fairly), but a provision would still be required for the period until such an increase could be brought into effect.
INSPRU 1.2.62RRP
When a firm establishes its mathematical reserves in respect of a long-term insurance contract, the firm must include an amount to cover any increase in liabilities which might be the direct result of its policyholder exercising an option under, or by virtue of, that contract of insurance. Where the surrender value of a contract is guaranteed, the amount of the mathematical reserves for that contract at any time must be at least as great as the value guaranteed at that time.
FEES 6.7.6RRP
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year6 of the compensation scheme:44(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised
APER 4.2.7GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.2.6 G includes, but is not limited to, recommending transactions in investments to a customer without a reasonable understanding of the liability (either potential or actual) of that transaction.
APER 4.2.9GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.2.8 G includes, but is not limited to, trading on the APER employer's4 own account without a reasonable understanding of the liability (either potential or actual) of the transaction.
BIPRU 3.4.48RRP
[deleted]10
BIPRU 3.4.121RRP
Where BIPRU 3.4.116 R does not apply, a firm may determine the risk weight for a CIU as set out in BIPRU 3.4.123 R to BIPRU 3.4.125 R, if the following eligibility criteria are met:(1) one of the following conditions is satisfied:(a) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision in the UK10; or(b) the following conditions are satisfied:(i) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision that is equivalent to that laid down in UK10 law; and55(ii)
BIPRU 3.4.131RRP
Gold bullion held in own vaults or on an allocated basis to the extent backed by bullion liabilities must be assigned a 0% risk weight.[Note: BCD Annex VI Part 1 point 87]
COLL 6.3.3ARRP
(1) 8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme13must ensure the employment of the accounting policies and procedures referred to in SYSC 4.1.9 R (Accounting policies), so as to ensure the protection of unitholders.(2) Accounting for the scheme shall be carried out in such a way that all assets and liabilities of the scheme can be directly identified at all times.(3) If the scheme is an umbrella, separate accounts must be maintained for each sub-fund.[Note: article 8(1) of the
COLL 6.3.3DRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme13must establish appropriate procedures to ensure the proper and accurate valuation of the assets and liabilities of each scheme it manages.[Note: article 8(3) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

[deleted]12

7

12

7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, then, unless COLL 6.3.6G(1)(7B) applies,14 the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

14(7B)

Where the authorised fund manager decides that an immovable must be sold quickly to meet redemption requests as they fall due, it should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable price for the immovable to reflect a rapid sale, to extent that the prospectus states that it may do so.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

FIT 2.3.2GRP
The FCA1will not normally require a 1candidate to supply a statement of assets or liabilities. The fact that a person may be of limited financial means will not, in itself, affect their 1suitability to perform a controlled function. The FCA would expect a firm3 to take a similar view in assessing whether staff being assessed under FIT, are fit and proper.11112