Related provisions for MAR 5A.2.3

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MAR 5A.3.1RRP
1A firm must:(1) execute orders on a discretionary basis in accordance with MAR 5A.3.2R;(2) unless permitted in MAR 5A.3.5R, not execute any client orders against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the firm; and (3) ensure that the operation of an OTF and of a systematic internaliser does not take place within the same legal entity, and that the OTF does not connect with another OTF or with a systematic
MAR 5A.3.2RRP
The discretion which the firm must exercise in executing a client order must be either, or both, of the following: (1) the first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the OTF;(2) the second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the OTF at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the firm’s obligations under COBS
MAR 5A.3.3GRP
Where the OTF crosses client orders, the firm may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match. In addition, subject to the requirements of this section, the firm may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more potentially comparable trading interests in a transaction.[Note: article 20(6) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.3.4GRP
MAR 5A.3 does not prevent a firm from engaging another investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an OTF operated by it provided the investment firm does not have close links with the firm.[Note: article 20(5) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.3.5RRP
A firm must not engage in:(1) matched principal trading on an OTF operated by it except in bonds, structured finance products, emission allowances and derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with article 5 of EMIR, and where the client has consented; or(2) dealing on own account on an OTF operated by it, excluding matched principal trading, except in sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.[Note: article
MAR 5A.3.7RRP
A firm engaging in matched principal trading in accordance with MAR 5A.3.5R(1) must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading.[Note: article 20(1) and (7) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.3.8GRP
Matched principal trading does not exclude the possibility of settlement risk, and, accordingly, firms should take appropriate steps to minimise this risk. 4
MAR 5A.3.9RRP
A firm must comply with the obligations under the following provisions of MiFID, in the course of operating an OTF:(1) articles 16(2), 16(3) (first subparagraph), 16(4), 16(5), 16(6), 16(7), 16(8), 16(9), and 16(10);(2) articles 24(1), (3), (4), (5), (9), (10) and (11);(3) articles 25(3) (except to the extent that article 25(4) applies), 25(5), and 25(6) (to the extent applicable);(4) article 27; and(5) article 28. [Note: article 20(8) of MiFID. The above MiFID provisions are
MAR 5A.3.10RRP
A firm must:(1) in respect of an OTF operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, provide to the FCA a detailed explanation of:(a) why the OTF does not correspond to, and cannot operate as, an MTF, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;(b) how discretion will be exercised in executing client orders; and(c) its use of matched principal trading; and(2) supply the information in (1) to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory
MAR 5A.3.11GRP
A person operating an organised trading facility cannot also provide the service of a systematic internaliser, irrespective of whether the systematic internaliser trades different financial instruments or types of financial instruments to those traded on the OTF.
MAR 5A.5.2RRP
MAR 5A.5.1R applies in particular to systems and controls concerning: (1) the resilience of the firm’s trading systems;(2) its capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;(3) the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;(4) the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the OTF’s services if there is any failure of its trading systems, including the testing of the OTF’s systems and controls;(5) the ability
MAR 5A.5.3RRP
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; (3) monitor
MAR 5A.5.4RRP
A market making agreement in MAR 5A.5.3R(1) must specify:(1) the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;(2) where applicable, any obligations arising, or rights accruing, from the participation in a liquidity scheme mentioned in MAR 5A.5.3R(2); and(3) any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the firm to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the OTF on a regular and predictable basis and, where applicable,
MAR 5A.5.5RRP
A firm must have the ability to:(1) temporarily halt or constrain trading on the OTF if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on the OTF or a related trading venue during a short period; and(2) in exceptional cases, cancel, vary, or correct, any transaction.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.5.6RRP
For the purposes of MAR 5A.5.5R, and to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading, a firm must calibrate the parameters for halting trading in a way which takes into account the following: (1) the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;(2) the nature of the trading venue market model; and(3) the types of users.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.5.8RRP
A firm must have systems and procedures to notify the FCA if:(1) an OTF operated by it is material in terms of the liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument3; and(2) trading is halted in that instrument.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.5.9RRP
A firm which permits direct electronic access to an OTF it operates must:(1) not permit members or participants of the OTF to provide such services unless they are:(a) MiFID investment firms3; or(b) CRD credit institutions; or(c) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 46.1 of MiFIR; or(d) third country firms providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under article 47.3 of MiFIR;
MAR 5A.5.10RRP
Where a firm permits co-location in relation to the OTF, its rules on co-location services must be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory. [Note: article 48(8) of MiFID and MiFID RTS 10]
MAR 5A.5.11RRP
A firm’s fee structure, for all fees it charges and rebates it grants in relation to the OTF, must:(1) be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory; (2) not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading or market abuse; and(3) impose market making obligations in individual financial instruments or suitable baskets of financial instruments for any rebates that are granted. [Note: article 48(9) of
MAR 5A.5.13RRP
A firm must require members and participants of an OTF operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for the firm to be able to identify the following:(1) different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and (2) the persons initiating those orders. [Note: article 48(10) of MiFID]
MAR 5A.4.1RRP
1A firm must have:(1) transparent rules and procedures for fair and orderly trading; [Note: article 18(1) of MiFID](2) objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders2;[Note: article 18(1) of MiFID](3) arrangements for the sound management of the technical operations of the facility, including the establishment of effective contingency arrangements to cope with the risks of systems disruption;[Note: article 18(1) of MiFID](4) transparent rules regarding the criteria for
MAR 5A.4.2RRP
A firm must:(1) ensure the OTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) provide the following to the FCA: (a) a detailed description of the functioning of the OTF, including any links to or participation by a regulated market, an MTF or OTF or systematic internaliser owned by the same firm; and(b) a list of its members, participants and users;
MAR 5A.4.3RRP
Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an OTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the OTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that OTF.[Note: article 18(8) of MiFID]
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

An exchange5 operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement Chapter 1 of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive—5

3

(i)

as they have effect on 1 December 20216, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act; and5

(ii)

as amended from time to time, in all other cases;5

(b)

any EU regulation originally made under Chapter 1 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is retained direct EU legislation, or any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under those provisions on or after IP completion day;5

3

which are applicable to a market operator35operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity5;

(b)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits.5

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating an SME growth market5 (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph as they have effect on IP completion day5.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading5.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under—5

(a)

section 11.2A of the Conduct of Business sourcebook;5

(b)

Articles 64 to 66 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 of 25 April 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards organisational requirements and operating conditions for investment firms and defined terms for the purposes of that Directive;5

(c)

[deleted]6

5

(d)

[deleted]6

5

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as they have effect on 1 December 20216 as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

5

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(21) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.
REC 2.16A.1CRRP
3In paragraphs 9H(1) and (2) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations where the UK RIE must provide information in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, such information must be provided to the FCA in writing and delivered by any one of the methods set out in REC 3.2.3R.
REC 2.16A.2GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility (including an SME growth market) or organised trading facility)3 complies with this chapter3, the FCA will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements. A UK RIE operating such facilities should also have regard to the guidance set out in MAR 5 (Multilateral trading facilities (MTFs)) and MAR 5A (Organised trading facilities (OTFs))3. 22
REC 3.14A.1GRP
1The purpose of REC 3.14A is to ensure that the FCA3is informed of planned changes to a UK RIE’s4 markets and their regulatory status as either a regulated market, MTF or OTF4. 534
REC 3.14A.4RRP
Where a UK RIE proposes to operate a new MTF or OTF4 or close an existing MTF or OTF4 it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14A.5 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them).3
REC 3.14A.5RRP
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.14A.4 R:(1) [Note:REC 2.16A.1(2) requires the FCA to be provided with a detailed description of the operation of an MTF or OTF. The description must be provided in the form set out in MiFID ITS 19.]4(2) Where4 the UK RIE proposes to close a MTF or OTF4, the name of that MTF or OTF4.
REC 3.15.2RRP
Where, for any reason, an RIE halts trading in a financial instrument on a trading venue which is material in terms of liquidity in that financial instrument,4it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, particulars of that financial instrument4, and the reasons for the action taken.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID and MiFID RTS 12]43
REC 3.15.2ARRP
1When a UK RIE suspends trading on a trading venue4 in any financial instrument, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument and the reasons for the action taken. [Note: articles 32(2) and 52(2), paragraph 14 of MiFID. REC 2.6.6UK(4)5 requires that the FCA be notified when a trading suspension for a financial instrument is lifted or a financial instrument is re-admitted to trading. MiFID ITS
REC 6A.2.1GRP
1Under section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may prohibit an EEA market operator from making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market,6multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility6 operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator has contravened a relevant requirement;6 and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3)
REC 6A.2.6GRP
The operator's right to make arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market,6multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility6, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together with its exempt person status) if the FCA5 is satisfied that the contravention which led the FCA5 to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.55
MAR 5A.9.1RRP
1A firm must: (1) not exercise any power under its rules to suspend or remove from trading any financial instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such a step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interest of investors or the orderly functioning of the trading venue; (2) where it does suspend or remove from trading a financial instrument, also suspend or remove derivatives that relate or are referenced to that financial instrument, where necessary
REC 6.1.1GRP
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:2(1) obtain a Part 4A permission2 from the FCA2; or422(2) [deleted]4(3) [deleted]4113331(4) obtain exempt person status by being declared by the FCA2 to be an ROIE.222
MAR 5A.6.1RRP
1A firm must: (1) clearly inform its users of their respective responsibilities for the settlement of transactions executed in its OTF; and (2) have in place the arrangements necessary to facilitate the efficient settlement of the transactions concluded under its systems. [Note: article 18(6) of MiFID] [Note: in relation to derivative transactions, MiFID RTS 26 contains requirements on the systems for clearing of such transactions]
REC 3.16.1GRP
The purpose of REC 3.16 is to ensure that the FCA1receives a copy of the UK recognised body's plans and arrangements for ensuring business continuity if there are major problems with its computer systems. The FCA1does not need to be notified of minor revisions to, or updating of, the documents containing a UK recognised body's business continuity plan (for example, changes to contact names or telephone numbers). [Note:MiFID RTS 7 requires that the operator of a trading venue assess
MAR 5A.7.1RRP
1A firm must:(1) have effective arrangements and procedures relevant to its OTF for the regular monitoring of the compliance by its users with its rules; and (2) monitor the transactions undertaken by its users under its systems in order to identify breaches of those rules, disorderly trading conditions, system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument, or conduct that may involve market abuse. [Note: article 31(1) of MiFID]
FEES 4.4.1RRP
A firm (other than the Society12) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.888515
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66

31

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application.

66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

(4) [deleted]66

1418013434343434343441

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) [deleted]56

4

(c) [deleted]66

(d) [deleted]66

27		 2727

(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R:

66(i) an application for an order declaring a scheme to be recognised under section 271A or section 272 of the Act72;

66(ii)

application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF;

68

66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68

66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM.

58366666

Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66

36

On or before the date the application or notification66 is made

36

(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66

66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body;

66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges;

66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body;

66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company;

66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations;

66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations;

66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR;

66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10;

(xi) an application for registration71 as a third party verifier;

(xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission70.

27272766

Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

2727

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

28

28(ea) [deleted]66

5656

(eb) [deleted]66

28

(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66

66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;

66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme;

66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond;

66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D;

66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for:

66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or

66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act.

(vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.

Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or62

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256

17781717

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

(ga) [deleted]52

26353535

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) [deleted]66

(o) [deleted]65

112229529782929556782929295557829295782929297829295

[deleted]65

5255512515555157857855256

[deleted]65

278292978292978229

(oa) [deleted]65

2937373737585637373737583737

[deleted]65

37

[deleted]65

37373737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table

26

(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66

(2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66

(2A) [deleted]66

(3) [deleted]66

(3A) [deleted]66

(3B) [deleted]66

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66

66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR;

(ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R;

(3D) [deleted]66

(4) [deleted]66

[deleted]66

3080444130808011178783778378080371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730804111781444444

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137913797722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

 66 566

(s) [deleted]66

5		 7777375937597777377737 37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34		 34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35		 35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66

8

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66.

47

On or before the date the application is made.

(ya) [deleted]66

47		 47 47

(z) [deleted]66

47

(za) [deleted]66

47

(zb) [deleted]66

47		 5050475050475047474747475050

(zc) [deleted]66

47		 474747474747

(zd)

47		 47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78		 78 91678

(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66.

16

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66

On or before the date the application is made.

(zh) [deleted]66

16

(zi) [deleted]66

1614

(zj) [deleted]66

16		 5050

(zk) [deleted]66

16

(zl) [deleted]66

15		 18

(zm) [deleted]66

18		 4141

(zn) [deleted]66

18		 4141 21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

(zs) [deleted]66

3031		 31303131

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(zw) [deleted]66

4563634963

(zx) [deleted]66

46		 63

(zy) [deleted]66

464956

56

63

(zz) [deleted]66

51

52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.

The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).

On the date the application is made.

(zzb) [deleted]66

52

(zzc) [deleted]66

52

54(zzd) applications for claims management companies

The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66

Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.

On the date the application is made.

(zze) [deleted]66

55

61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.

5,000

Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.

The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.

On the date the application is made.

64(zzh) Permission for

(1) carrying on funeral plan distribution;

(2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or

(3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.

(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below.

(2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be:

(a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2);

(b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3).

(3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be:

(a) £500 for (zzh)(1);

(b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and

(c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).

On or before the application is made.

32Part 2: Primary market fees73

38

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

REC 3.14.2ARRP
1When a UK RIE removes a financial instrument from trading on a trading venue4, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument, any derivative that is also removed from trading that relates or is referenced to that financial instrument,4 and the reasons for the action taken.[Note: articles 32(2) and 52(2), paragraph 14 of MiFID. REC 2.6.6UK(4)5 requires that the FCA be notified when a trading suspension
MAR 10.3.3RRP
(1) This rule applies to a UK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF and a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF.(2) A firm must apply position management controls which enable an MTF or OTF at least to: (a) monitor the open interest positions of persons;(b) access information, including all relevant documentation, from persons about: (i) the size and purpose of a position or exposure entered into;(ii)
REC 3.18.1GRP
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FCA4 to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FCA4has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements or (for RAPs) RAP recognition requirements87continue to be met.442(2)
MAR 5.3.1ARRP
4A firm must:(1) ensure the MTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) have arrangements to ensure it is adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation and put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks;[Note: article