Related provisions for IPRU-INV 4.2.2

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PRIN 3.4.4RRP
A contravention of the rules in PRIN does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action).
PERG 8.11.6GRP
Some exemptions are based on the communicator believing on reasonable grounds that the recipient meets certain conditions. For example, articles 19(1)(a), 44, 47 and 49. What are reasonable grounds for these purposes will be a matter for the courts to decide. In the FCA's view, it would be reasonable for a communicator to rely on a statement made by a potential recipient that he satisfies relevant conditions. This is provided that there is no reason to doubt the accuracy of the
EG 12.1.1RP
1The FCA has powers under sections 401 and 402 of the Act to prosecute a range of criminal offences in England, Wales and Northern Ireland. The FCA may also prosecute criminal offences where to do so would be consistent with meeting any of its statutory objectives.
BIPRU 12.3.9GRP
As part of the SLRP, the appropriate regulator will assess the appropriateness of the liquidity risk tolerance adopted by an ILAS BIPRU firm to ensure that this risk tolerance is consistent with maintenance by the firm of adequate liquidity resources for the purpose of the overall liquidity adequacy rule. The appropriate regulator will expect a firm to provide it with an adequately reasoned explanation for the level of liquidity risk which that firm'sgoverning body has decided
SYSC 22.2.3RRP

Table: What positions need a reference

Position

When to obtain reference

Comments

(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.

One month before the end of the application period

Where a request for a reference would require:

(a) the firm requesting the reference;

(b) the employer giving the reference; or

(c) any other person;

to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period.

(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by2 authorised persons).

Before the certificate is issued

This includes renewing an existing certificate.

(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook):

(a) a notified non-executive director;

(b) a credit union non-executive director; or

(c) a key function holder.

Not applicable

SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

3(D) A firm appointing someone to be a non-SMF board director subject to competence requirements of itself.

Before appointment

Only applies where the appointment is by a UK SMCR firm that is:

(a) a core SMCR firm; or

(b) an enhanced scope SMCR firm.

Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public.

Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R.

Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application).
APER 1.1A.9GRP
[deleted]5
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A firm3 assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a firm3 should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person might not be fit and proper before determining
REC 4.4.2GRP
The Act does not provide a mechanism for appeals to the FCA2 from decisions by recognised bodies in relation to complaints. However, the FCA2 is required by section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) to have arrangements to investigate complaints (called relevant complaints in the Act) which it considers relevant to the question of whether a recognised body should remain recognised as such. This section describes aspects of the FCA's2 arrangements for investigating
PERG 8.23.1GRP
Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) no person may, by way of business, carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom unless he is authorised or exempt. The meaning of regulated activity is set out in Part II of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (the Regulated Activities Order) (as amended). Any person who breaches section 19 of the Act commits a criminal offence for which the maximum penalty is two years’ imprisonment
MCOB 6.4.4RRP
The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R (1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 5.6 (Content of illustrations) with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate), at the date the
REC 1.2.3GRP
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations, 6the RAP regulations,7 the Companies Act 19895and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.352(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which have the same meaning
CREDS 2.1.4GRP
The purposes of SYSC, which applies to all credit unions, are:(1) to encourage directors and senior managers to take appropriate practical responsibility for the arrangements that all firms must put in place on matters likely to be of interest to the FCA2 because they impinge on the FCA’s functions2 function under the Act;(2) to reinforce Principle 3, under which all firms must take reasonable care to organise and control their affairs responsibly and effectively with adequate
EG 15.2.3RP
1In cases where the nature of the breach of duties imposed on the auditors and actuaries under the Act (and/or in the case of actuaries imposed by trust scheme rules or contractual scheme rules) is such that the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of an individual auditor or actuary, the FCA will consider whether it is appropriate to make a prohibition order instead of, or in addition to, disqualifying the individual.
COBS 4.11.1RRP
(1) A firm must make an adequate record of any financial promotion:10(a) it communicates;10(b) it approves; or10(c) of which it confirms compliance (COBS 4.10.9AR(3)(a)),10other than a financial promotion made in the course of a personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue.(2) For a telemarketing campaign, a firm must make an adequate record of copies of any scripts used.(2A) [deleted] [Editor’s note: This provision now appears with minor amendments at
GEN 4.3.10GRP
8GEN 4.3.7R and the guidance related to it are not relevant to regulated activities11 covered by a limited permission (see the "relevant credit activities" set out in paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act)11.
CASS 5.3.1GRP
Section 137B(1) of the Act (Miscellaneous ancillary matters) provides that rules may make provision which results in client money being held by a firm on trust (England and Wales and Northern Ireland) or as agent (Scotland only). CASS 5.3.2 R creates a fiduciary relationship between the firm and its client under which client money is in the legal ownership of the firm but remains in the beneficial ownership of the client. In the event of failure of the firm, costs relating to
DISP App 1.1.5GRP
This appendix is also relevant to complaints which the Ombudsman may investigate under the Compulsory Jurisdiction or Voluntary Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service established under Part XVI of the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme).2525
COLL 4.3.2GRP
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)