Related provisions for SUP 15.3.14B

(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.

There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions.

The combined document should be included with the application for approval.

(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering reporting function. Both firms are SMCR firms5.

There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm.

This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group.

(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function.

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions.

(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering reporting function5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition.

The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application.

The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval.

(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering reporting function5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions.

(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals.

The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated.

(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm.

Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering reporting function5 and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The answer to example (5) applies.

The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that:

(1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function;

(2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function5; and

(3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5.

(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.

A then ceases to perform the money laundering reporting function5 but continues to perform the executive director function.5

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the money laundering reporting function5;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function and reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5.

(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the PRA function;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function5.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA.

(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm.

The application is rejected.

The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval.

If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones5 clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away.

In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J.

In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document.

(13) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. Later, A is to be appointed as an executive director5 for the same firm.

This will not result in any significant5 changes to A’s duties in the money laundering reporting function5. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role in the money laundering reporting function5 since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment as executive director5.

The answer for example (4) applies.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties in the money laundering role as well as covering A’s appointment to perform the executive director function. It does not matter that the changes to A’s money laundering role5 are not significant.

(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions.

It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary3 of firm X.

Firm X is an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm5 and firm3 Y is a UK SMCR firm5.

Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive director function5.

There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm.

7(16) An FCA-approved SMF manager goes on or returns from a temporary absence of longer than 12 weeks.

The firm must submit:

(a) Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R);

(b) Form J (SUP 10C Annex 9D); and

(c) an updated statement of responsibilities document (SUP 10C Annex 10D).

Note:5 The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D.5

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

• the approved money-market instrument has a residual maturity of less than three months and has no specific sensitivity to market parameters, including credit risk; or5
• the scheme is a qualifying money market fund.5

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

[deleted]12

12

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

• no reliable price exists for a security1 at a valuation point; or
• the most recent price available does not reflect the authorised fund manager's best estimate of the value of a security at the valuation point

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

• no recent trade in the security concerned; or
• the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

• the type of authorised fund concerned;
• the securities involved;
• the basis and reliability of the alternative price1 used; and
• the authorised fund manager's policy on the valuation of scheme property as disclosed in the prospectus.

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, then, unless COLL 6.3.6G(1)(7B) applies,14 the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

14(7B)

Where the authorised fund manager decides that an immovable must be sold quickly to meet redemption requests as they fall due, it should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable price for the immovable to reflect a rapid sale, to extent that the prospectus states that it may do so.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

• asset prices are accurate and up to date;
• investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
• the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
• the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
• compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
• dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
• fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
• tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
• reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
• the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
• the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

• the authorised fund manager and depositary meet the standards of control set out in Section 2 and Section 3 of this Table; and
• the error in pricing1 of a unit is less than 0.5% of the correct price.

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.