Related provisions for EG 19.34.20
541 - 560 of 955 items.
The Regulated Activities Order, which sets out the activities for which authorisation is required, does not attempt an exhaustive definition of a 'contract of insurance'. Instead, it makes some specific extensions and limitations to the general common law meaning of the concept. For example, it expressly extends the concept to fidelity bonds and similar contracts of guarantee, which are not contracts of insurance at common law, and it excludes certain funeral plan contracts, which
1Statements of Principle issued under section 64A(1)(a) of the Act
Statement of Principle 1 An approved person must act with integrity in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 2 An approved person must act with due skill, care and diligence in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 3 An approved person must observe proper standards of market conduct in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 4 An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice. |
Statement of Principle 5 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the APER employer4 for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function is organised so that it can be controlled effectively. |
Statement of Principle 6 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must exercise due skill, care and diligence in managing the business of the APER employer4 for which they are1 responsible in their 1accountable function. |
Statement of Principle 7 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the APER employer4 for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system. |
A firm should keep a record of, and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA, the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.
The conditions referred to in IPRU-INV 13.15.7R are:(1) the subordinated loan must have an original maturity of at least two years or, if it has no fixed term, it is subject to not less than two years' notice of repayment;(2) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must not permit payment of interest unless a firm has at least 120% of its capital resources requirement after that payment2;(3) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must only permit repayment, prepayment
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FCA12 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions15; 15158(2) to implement certain
(1) [deleted]10151510(2) [deleted]101510(3) [deleted]1010(4) [deleted]1010(4A) [deleted]105151510(4B) [deleted]1051515151510(5) [deleted]8108(6) 10A firm must submit annually by electronic means to the FCA12 the Controllers Report which contains the information specified in the form in SUP 16 Annex 37A, within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date9.
Cases (a) to (h) in DTR 5.2.1 R identify situations where a person may be able to control the manner in which voting rights are exercised and where, (taking account of any aggregation with other holdings) a notification to the issuer may need to be made. In the FCA's view:(1) Case (e) produces the result that it is always necessary for the parent undertaking of a controlled undertaking to aggregate its holding with any holding of the controlled undertaking (subject to the exemptions
A person falling within Cases (a) to (h) is an indirect holder of shares for the purpose of the definition of shareholder. These indirect holdings have to be aggregated, but also separately identified in a notification to the issuer. Apart from those identified in the Cases (a) to (h), the FCA does not expect any other significant category "indirect shareholder" to be identified. Cases (a) to (h) are also relevant in determining whether a person is an indirect holder of financial
(1) Most of the provisions in this sourcebook are marked with a G (to indicate guidance) or an R (to indicate a rule). Quotations from UK5 statute or statutory instruments are marked with the letters "UK"5 unless they form part of a piece of guidance. Other informative text regarding provisions of EU directives or onshored regulations6 which is meant to be for the convenience of readers but is not part of the legislative material is preceded by the word “Note”.5 For a discussion
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations, 6the RAP regulations,7 the Companies Act 19895and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.352(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which have the same meaning
(1) An authorised professional firm of a kind falling within (2) must comply with such of IPRU-INV 3, 53 or 13 which in accordance with IPRU-INV 2.1.4R, most appropriately correlates to the type and scale of the business which it conducts. (2) The type of authorised professional firm to which (1) applies is one:(a) [deleted]3(b) which acts as a market maker; (c) which acts as a stabilising manager;
(da) which acts as a small authorised UK
The FCA considers the scope of this exclusion cannot be precisely defined. Ultimately questions of interpretation are for the Court to determine. The FCA considers that to satisfy the exclusion the services cannot be the major part of the practice of the firm. The FCA also considers the following factors to be among those that are relevant: (1) the scale of regulated activity in proportion to other professional services provided; (2) whether and to what extent activities that
4An issuer whose registered office is in a third country6 is exempted from the rules on:5(1) annual financial reports in DTR 4.1 (other than DTR 4.1.7R (4) which continues to apply); (2) half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2); and(3) reports on payments to governments (DTR 4.3A);5if the law of the third country6 in question lays down equivalent requirements or the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a third country6 that the FCA considers as equivalent.5[Note: article
The FCA maintains a published list of third countries6,5 for the purpose of DTR 4.4.8R6, whose laws5 lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter, or where the requirements of the law of that third country6 are considered to be equivalent by the FCA5.Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
25Nothing in this appendix relieves firms of the obligation to consider the particular facts and circumstances of each complaint and to consider whether the assessment of loss and compensation should, in the light of those facts and circumstances, be carried out on a different basis. If, however, the facts and circumstances make it appropriate to do so, the FCA's expectation is that firms will apply the approach and standards set out in this appendix, and where they do not, the
2(1) The purpose of these rules is to set out the requirements for registered societies and sponsoring bodies to pay application fees3.2(2) This set of rules is in respect of the registration functions relating to registered societies transferred to the FCA by section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012, other than friendly societies authorised under section 31 of the Act.2
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities; |
[Note: article 25 of MiFIR requires the operator of a trading venue to keep relevant data relating to all orders in financial instruments which are advertised through their systems at the disposal of the FCA]4 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least five years4; and(2) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes4: (a)
An issuer whose registered office is in a third country4 is exempted from DTR 6.1.3 R to DTR 6.1.15 R if:33(1) the law of the third country4 in question lays down equivalent requirements; or3(2) the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a third country4 that the FCA considers as equivalent.3[Note: article 23(1) of the TD]3
The FCA maintains a published list of third countries4, for the purpose of DTR 6.1.16R4, whose laws3 lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter, or where the requirements of the law of that third country4 are considered to be equivalent by the FCA3. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:3(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
1The FCA has powers under section 55J of the Act to vary or cancel an authorised person’sPart 4A permission and a power under section 55L to impose requirements on an authorised person. The FCA may use these powers where: (1) the person is failing or is likely to fail to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible; (2) the person has not carried on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates for a period of at least 12 months (or six months
1The powers under sections 55J and 55L of the Act2 to vary and cancel a person’s Part 4A permission and to impose requirements2 are exercisable in the same circumstances. However, the statutory procedure for the exercise of the own-initiative powers to vary a permission or impose a requirement2 is different to the statutory procedure for the exercise of the cancellation power under section 55J2 and this may determine how the FCA acts in a given case. Certain types of behaviour
4It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the insurance intermediary is an exempt insurance intermediary and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.6
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
(1) The FCA takes the view that sections 77, 78 and 79 of the CCA should be read in a way that allows the borrower or hirer to obtain the information needed in order to be properly informed without imposing unnecessary burden on firms.(2) The statement referred to in the relevant section must be prepared according to the information to which it is 'practicable' for the firm to refer. In the FCA's view, this means practicable at the time of the request and includes information
(1) Failure to comply with the provisions means that the agreement becomes unenforceable while the failure to comply persists, and the courts have no discretion to allow enforcement.(2) In such cases, a firm should in no way, either by act or omission, mislead a customer as to the enforceability of the agreement.(3) In particular, a firm should not in such cases either threaten court action or other enforcement of the debt or imply that the debt is enforceable when it is not.(4)
The purpose of this section is to give directions to the electronic money issuers referred to in SUP 16.1.1B D under regulation 49 (Reporting requirements) of the Electronic Money Regulations in relation to:(1) the information in respect of their issuance of electronic money and provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations that they must provide to the FCA6; and 6(2) the time at which
An electronic money issuer that is not a credit institution must submit to the FCA:66(1) the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.15.8 D; and(2) the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.15.8 D; (b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;(c) by the due date specified in column (5) of that table; and (d) by electronic
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a MiFID complaint under DISP 1.1A.20R(2) include the following:
(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2)
similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;
(3) relevant guidance published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and
(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar
When assessing a MiFID investment firm’s response to a MiFID complaint, the FCA may have regard to a number of factors, including, the quality of response, as against the above rules, as well as the speed with which it was made.
[Note: subject to a few minor changes reflecting its amended application, this provision replicates DISP 1.6.8G]
The complaints reporting rules also apply to the MiFID complaints of a firm, except that the relevant parts of the report which the firm must provide to the FCA under DISP 1.10.1R must, in relation to MiFID complaints, include information about such complaints received from retail clients, professional clients, and (where relevant) eligible counterparties rather than eligible complainants.