Related provisions for BIPRU 7.8.20
41 - 60 of 96 items.
(1) This section covers techniques relating to transferable securities and approved money-market instruments which are used for the purpose of efficient portfolio management. It3 permits the generation of additional income for the benefit of the authorised fund, and hence for its investors, by entry into stock lending transactions for the account of the authorised fund.(2) The specific method of stock lending permitted in this section is in fact not a transaction which is a loan
(1) Firms to which COBS 16.4 applies are reminded that, under COBS 16.4, they are required to send to each of their clients at least once a year a statement in a durable medium of those designated investments and/or client money they hold for that client. A firm which manages investments may provide this statement in its periodic statement, as required under COBS 16.3.2(2) COBS 16.4 (Statements of client designated investments or client money) applies, in accordance with COBS
This table belongs to IPRU-INV 2.1.1R
TYPE OF BUSINESS ACTIVITY |
CHAPTER OF SOURCEBOOK |
(i) managing investments other than for retail clients; or |
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(ii) OPS activity; or |
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(iii) [deleted] |
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(iv) [deleted] |
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(ivb) managing an AIF; or |
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(v) acting as a residual CIS operator; or |
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(va) establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme; or |
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(i) advising on, or arrangingdeals in, packaged products; or |
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(ii) managing investments for retail clients; |
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(i) a regulated activity carried on as a member of an exchange; or |
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(ii) acting as a market maker in securities or derivatives; or |
Securities and futures firm (which is not a MiFID investment firm) - IPRU-INV 3 |
(iii) corporate finance business; or |
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(iv) dealing or arranging deals in securities or derivatives, other than interprofessional investments; or |
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(v) the provision of clearing services as a clearing firm; or |
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(vi) spread betting; |
The overall effect is that a financial promotion must relate in some way to a controlled investment and may be summarised as the communication, in the course of business, of an invitation or inducement to:(1) acquire, dispose of or underwrite certain investments or exercise rights conferred by such an investment for such purpose or for the purpose of converting it; or(2) receive or undertake investment services such as dealing in investments as principal or as agent, managing
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
(1) Cash and near cash must not be retained in the scheme property except to the extent that this may reasonably be regarded as necessary in order to enable:(a) the pursuit of the scheme's investment objectives; or(b) redemption of units; or(c) efficient management of the authorised fund in accordance with its investment objectives; or(d) other purposes which may reasonably be regarded as ancillary to the investment objectives of the authorised fund.(2) During the period of the
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 14, SYSC 18 to10SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or SYSC 23 to 9SYSC 28A12 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344378
This section applies to a firm in relation to:(1) [deleted]8(2) any of8 the following regulated activities when carried on for a retail client:(a) making a personal recommendation about a designated investment6;5 or(b) managing investments that are designated investments (other than a P2P agreement);5 or(c) arranging (bringing about) or executing a deal in a warrant, non-readily realisable security4speculative illiquid security,12 or derivative; or(d) engaging in stock lending
(1) Subject to the legal structure of the AIF and the instrument constituting the fund, an AIFM must ensure that a substantial portion, and in any event at least 50% of any variable remuneration, consists of units or shares of the AIF concerned, or equivalent ownership interests, or share-linked instruments or equivalent non-cash instruments. However, if the management of AIFs accounts for less than 50% of the total portfolio managed by the AIFM, the minimum of 50 % does not apply.(2)
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out 7additional cases. The Act states that, in these 7cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United
A UCITS management company must not engage in any activities other than:(1) [deleted]7(1A) managing a UK UCITS13;7(1B) managing an AIF;7(1C) acting as a residual CIS operator;7(2) activities for the purposes of or in connection with those in (1A), (1B) or (1C);77(3) collective portfolio management, including without limitation:(a) investment management;(b) administration:(i) legal and fund management accounting services;(ii) customer enquiries;(iii) valuation and pricing (including
Where a firm is not aware of the underlying exposures of a fund, it may calculate an average risk weight for the fund in the following manner: (1) it will be assumed that the fund first invests, to the maximum extent allowed under its mandate, in the exposure classes attracting the highest capital resources requirement; and(2) then continues making investments in descending order until the maximum total investment limit is reached.
A firm should distinguish between conditions placed by a client on the firm's use of a mandate, and criteria to which transactions effected by a firm with or for a client may be subject.(1) The requirements in CASS 8.3.2 R (1) and CASS 8.3.2 R (3) apply only in respect of conditions placed around the firm's use of a mandate itself or around the instructions described in CASS 8.2.1 R (4). Examples of these include conditions under which a mandate may only be used by the firm in