Related provisions for LR 8.6.7B

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SUP 10A.13.1GRP
In accordance with section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), where a candidate will be performing one or more FCA controlled functions, a firm must take reasonable care to ensure that the candidate does not perform these functions unless he has prior approval from the FCA.
SUP 10A.13.2GRP
If a person performs an FCA controlled function without approval it is not only the firm that is accountable. Under section 63A of the Act (Power to impose penalties), if the FCA is satisfied that:(1) a person (“P”) has at any time performed an FCA controlled function without approval; and(2) at that time P knew, or could reasonably be expected to have known, that P was performing an FCA controlled function without approval;it may impose a penalty on P of such amount as it considers
SUP 10A.13.3DRP
An application by a firm for the FCA's approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) must be made by completing Form A (except where SUP 10A.14.4 D requires a Form E).
SUP 10A.13.5GRP
(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:(a) the FCAcandidate; or(b) the appointed representative5.(2) [deleted]53
SUP 10A.13.6GRP

Outsourcing arrangements [deleted]5

SUP 10A.13.7GRP
Where the notification of an appointed representative (SUP 12.7.1 R) is linked to an application for approval (SUP 10A.13 (Applications for approval and withdrawing an application for approval)), any delay in receiving the notification under SUP 12.7.1 R may delay the FCA's approval of the individuals employed by that appointed representative who will be performing FCA controlled functions for the firm.
SUP 10A.13.8GRP
The Act sets out the time that the FCA has to consider an application and come to a decision.
SUP 10A.13.9GRP
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.
SUP 10A.13.11GRP
The FCA must either grant the application or, if it proposes not to grant an application, issue a warning notice (see DEPP 2). The FCA will deal with cases more quickly than this whenever circumstances allow and will try to meet the standard response times published on the website and in its Annual Report. However, if an application is incomplete when received, or the FCA has knowledge that, or reason to believe that, the information is incomplete, then the processing time will
SUP 10A.13.12GRP
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
SUP 10A.13.13GRP
If there is a delay in processing the application within the standard response time, the FCA will tell the firm making the application as soon as this becomes apparent.
SUP 10A.13.14GRP
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FCA may ask the firm for more information about the FCA candidate. If it does this, the three-month period in which the FCA must determine a completed application:(1) will stop on the day the FCA requests the information; and(2) will start running again on the day on which the FCA finally receives all the requested information.
SUP 10A.13.15GRP
The FCA may grant an application only if it is satisfied that the FCA candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the FCA controlled function stated in the application form. Responsibility lies with the firm making the application to satisfy the FCA that the FCA candidate is fit and proper to perform the FCA controlled function applied for.
SUP 10A.13.16GRP
For further guidance on criteria for assessing whether a FCA candidate is fit and proper, see FIT.
SUP 10A.13.17GRP
Whenever it grants an application, the FCA will confirm this in writing to all interested parties.
SUP 10A.13.18GRP
If the FCA proposes to refuse an application in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions, it must follow the procedures for issuing warning and decision notices to all interested parties. The requirements relating to warning and decision notices are in DEPP 2.
SUP 10A.13.19RRP
A firm notifying the FCA of its withdrawal of 1an application for approval must notify the FCA using Form B (SUP 10C Annex 4R)3.
RCB 2.3.1GRP
To enable the FCA to be satisfied that the issuer and the proposed owner will comply with requirements imposed on the issuer or owner, as the case may be, by or under the RCB Regulations, the applicant should use the application form to provide relevant details of the proposed covered bond or programme and demonstrate how each of the requirements will be complied with.
RCB 2.3.2GRP
(1) The FCA's application form covers both issuer registration and covered bond registration as the FCA will not normally consider applications for issuer registration in isolation from the application for registration of the covered bond.(2) An issuer which has been admitted to the register of issuers should use the same form to apply for registration of subsequent covered bonds or programmes.(3) The issuer does not need to apply for registration of individual issuances from
RCB 2.3.3GRP
In relation to registration of an issuer of regulated covered bonds, the FCA will need to be satisfied that the issuer's compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system has been adequate and does not give rise to any material cause for concern over the issuer's ability to issue regulated covered bonds in compliance with the RCB Regulations.
RCB 2.3.6GRP
The FCA will:(1) expect the issuer to demonstrate that it has in place appropriate systems, controls, procedures and policies, including in relation to risk management, underwriting, arrears and valuation; (2) expect the issuer to demonstrate that the cash-flows generated by the assets would be sufficient to meet the payments due in a timely manner including under conditions of economic stress and in the event of the failure of the issuer;(3) take account of any over collateralisation
RCB 2.3.7GRP
The risk factors which the FCA will take into account in assessing the issuer's and owner's compliance with Regulations 17(2)(d) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 23(2) (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) will include credit risk of the assets, concentration risk, market risk and counterparty risk.
RCB 2.3.8GRP
(1) The credit risk of an asset is the risk of loss if another party fails to perform its obligations or fails to perform them in a timely fashion.(2) Where, for example, the asset pool includes residential mortgages the relevant factors which the FCA may consider include: (a) whether the asset pool contains (or could contain) loans made to individuals who have been made bankrupt or have had court judgments made against them;(b) the extent to which the asset pool contains (or
RCB 2.3.9GRP
Concentration risk is the risk of loss from exposures being limited in number or variety. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include:(1) the level of granularity of the asset pool (i.e. what is the number and size distribution of assets in the pool); (2) whether the borrowers or collateral is unduly concentrated in a particular industry, sector, or geographical region.
RCB 2.3.10GRP
Market risk is the risk that arises from fluctuations in the values of, or income from, assets or in interest or exchange rates. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include whether the hedging agreements (defined in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations as agreements entered into or assets held as protection against possible financial loss) adequately protect against any adverse mismatched cash-flows due to changes in market variables.
RCB 2.3.11GRP
Counterparty risk is the risk that the counterparty to a transaction could default before the final settlement of the transactions cash flows. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include whether the:(1) counterparty has an appropriate credit rating;(2) counterparty can unilaterally terminate the hedging agreement, and if so under what circumstances;(3) contractual arrangements contain appropriate termination procedures (for example, what provisions apply in the event of
RCB 2.3.12GRP
(1) The FCA will assess each risk factor separately and then assess any inter-dependencies and correlations to form a judgment on the quality of the asset pool as a whole. For example, an asset pool which is of high credit quality and so low risk due to a combination of factors such as owner occupation, low income multiples, full valuation methodologies, and a strong payments track record, may permit another factor such as high loan-to-value ratios, that would otherwise be considered
RCB 2.3.13GRP
In assessing whether the asset pool is of sufficient quality, the FCA will have regard to the requirements in relation to the collateralisation of real estate2referred to in article 208 of the UK CRR3 and the valuation rules in article 229(1) of the UK CRR3. 2222
RCB 2.3.14GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to demonstrate that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme that adequately deal with:(1) the identification and rectification of any breach of Regulations 17(2) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations;(2) the appointment of replacements for parties, for example servicers, cash managers or paying agents; and(3) the orderly winding-up
RCB 2.3.15GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to demonstrate, as part of showing that Regulations 17 (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations will be complied with, that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme which enable the views and interests of investors in the regulated covered bond to be taken account of in an appropriate and timely way by a suitably qualified, adequately resourced,
RCB 2.3.17GRP
(1) The FCA expects legal advice to deal adequately with at least the following matters in relation to the actual or proposed arrangements:(a) whether the transfer of the assets to the owner would be upheld in the event of liquidation or administration, or similar collective insolvency proceedings, of the issuer or the transferor (if different from the issuer);(b) the risk of the transfer of an asset to the owner being re-characterised as the creation of a security interest;(c)
RCB 2.3.18GRP
(1) The FCA expects the report from the accountants to address at least the following matters:(a) that the level of over collateralisation meets the limits set out in the covered bond arrangements which are designed to ensure compliance with the requirement that the asset pool is capable of covering claims attaching to the bond in Regulation 17 (requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations; and(b) that appropriate due diligence procedures (which
RCB 2.3.19GRP
The FCA's use of its power under Regulation 12 of the RCB Regulations (requirement of further information to determine application) may include requiring the issuer to provide copies of the advice or reports referred to in RCB 2.3.16 D to the FCA.
RCB 2.3.20GRP
1Assets which would be eligible for inclusion in a liquidity buffer under BIPRU 12.7 as it applied on 31 December 2021 4can be liquid assets for the purposes of limb (a) of the definition of liquid assets in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations. The FCA will also expect that liquid assets which consist of deposits should be held in the same currency or currencies as the regulated covered bonds issued by the issuer.
DEPP 4.1.1GRP
1All statutory notice decisions under executive procedures and decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.6A G3 will be taken either by a senior staff committee or by an individual FCA3 staff member.3
DEPP 4.1.2GRP
In the3 case of a senior staff committee,3 the decision will be taken by FCA3 staff who have not been directly involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based or by two or more FCA staff who include a person not directly involved in establishing that evidence,3 except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.33
DEPP 4.1.2AGRP
In the case of an individual FCA staff member, the decision will be taken by someone who has not been directly involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.
DEPP 4.1.3GRP
An FCA4 senior executive committee will from time to time determine that particular categories of statutory notice decision to be taken under executive procedures and decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.6A G3 may5 be taken by a senior staff committee.33
DEPP 4.1.4GRP
A senior staff committee will consist of such FCA3 staff members as an FCA4 senior executive committee may from time to time determine. An FCA4 senior executive committee may authorise the chairman of a senior staff committee to select its other members. A senior staff committee is accountable for its decisions to an FCA4 senior executive committee and, through it, to the FCA3 Board.33333333
DEPP 4.1.5GRP
A senior staff committee may operate through standing or specific sub-committees to consider particular decisions or classes of decision, for which accountability will lie through the committee. Each meeting of a senior staff committee, or sub-committee, will include:(1) an individual with authority to act as its chairman; and(2) at least one5 other member5.
DEPP 4.1.6GRP
A senior staff committee will operate on the basis of a recommendation from an FCA3 staff member of at least the level of associate, and with the benefit of legal advice from an FCA3 staff member of at least the level of associate.33
DEPP 4.1.7GRP
Statutory notice decisions to be taken under executive procedures and decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.6A G,3 which are not made by 5 a senior staff committee, will be taken by an individual FCA3 staff member. Subject to DEPP 2.5.7B,5 the decision will be:3(1) made by an executive director of the FCA3 Board or his delegate (who will be of at least the level of associate);3(2) on the recommendation of an FCA3 staff member of at least the level of associate; and3(3) with the benefit
DEPP 4.1.8GRP
The individual who takes a decision under executive procedures is accountable to the FCA3 Board directly (if an executive director) or otherwise through line management responsible for the decision concerned.3
DEPP 4.1.9GRP
An FCA3 staff member who considers that a statutory notice decision or a decision referred to in DEPP 2.5.6A G3 should be taken above his own level is free to refer that decision to a more senior level. If an FCA3 staff member consults another staff member about a decision, the decision remains the independent decision of the FCA3 staff member who consults his colleague, unless it is agreed that the decision should instead be taken by the colleague, and the colleague has the delegated
DEPP 4.1.10GRP
If an individual responsible for a decision under executive procedures (or a more senior FCA3 staff member with responsibilities in relation to the decision concerned) considers that it warrants collective consideration, the individual may:3(1) take the decision himself, following consultation with other FCA3 staff members, as above; or3(2) refer it to a senior staff committee, which will take the decision itself.
DEPP 4.1.11GRP
(1) FCA3staff are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest to the person to whom they are immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any matter in which they are4
DEPP 4.1.12GRP
The secretariat to the senior staff committee will record and document all disclosures of potential conflicts of interest and the steps taken to manage them.
DEPP 4.1.13GRP
The procedure for taking decisions under executive procedures will generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory notice decisions under executive procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for the RDC except that:3(-1) 5oral representations will not be permitted unless there are exceptional circumstances (DEPP 2.3.1A); (1) in a case where
DEPP 4.1.14GRP
3Broadly, FCA staff responsible for taking decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.6A G will follow a procedure similar to that described at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for the RDC (subject to the exceptions in DEPP 4.1.13 G (1) to DEPP 4.1.13 G (5) which also reflects that these decisions are not statutory notice decisions.
DTR 8.4.2GRP
The purpose of DTR 8.4.1 R is to ensure that a primary information provider can disseminate regulated information to as wide a public as possible, as close to simultaneously as possible, in the United Kingdom3. In considering whether a primary information provider has satisfied the requirements in DTR 8.4.1 R, the FCA will consider the number and nature of arrangements that the primary information provider has with media operators.
DTR 8.4.3RRP
Unless the regulated information is embargoed by the person who submitted it or by the FCA, a primary information provider must disseminate all regulated information that it receives as soon as possible.
DTR 8.4.4GRP
In assessing compliance with DTR 8.4.3 R, the FCA will have regard to whether the primary information provider has disseminated at least 95% of all regulated information which did not require reformatting within 5 minutes of receipt.
DTR 8.4.5RRP
A primary information provider must prioritise the order of dissemination of pending regulated information according to the headline information, except that a primary information provider must prioritise the dissemination of regulated information that is submitted by the FCA if the FCA requests it.
DTR 8.4.8RRP
A primary information provider must:(1) disseminate regulated information at least between the hours of 7:00 am and 6:30 pm on any business day;(2) be able to receive regulated information at all times; (3) provide service support at least between the hours of 7.00 am and 6.30 pm on any business day to:(a) any person who has requested the dissemination of regulated information; and(b) any media operator with whom the primary information provider has an arrangement for the dissemination
DTR 8.4.10GRP
In considering whether a primary information provider satisfies the requirements of DTR 8.4.9 R, the FCA will consider, among other things, whether the primary information provider has arrangements in place for an alternative primary information provider to receive and disseminate regulated information on its behalf.
DTR 8.4.14GRP
In determining whether a primary information provider has satisfied the requirement in DTR 8.4.13 R, the FCA will consider whether the changes made by the primary information provider would be likely to affect the import of the regulated information.
DTR 8.4.15RRP
A primary information provider must record the following information for each announcement of regulated information it disseminates: (1) the name of any person who communicates regulated information on behalf of an issuer or other organisation to the primary information provider;(2) the name of the issuer or organisation on whose behalf the regulated information is communicated;(3) the security validation details of the issuer or organisation;(4) the date and time the regulated
DTR 8.4.23RRP
Regulated information disseminated to a media operator by a primary information provider must contain the following: (1) identification of the information as regulated information which has been disseminated by a primary information provider;(2) the unique identification number for the item of regulated information;(3) the sequence number of the regulated information;(4) a clear indication of the start of the regulated information;(5) the name of the issuer or organisation concerned;(6)
DTR 8.4.29RRP
If requested by the FCA, a primary information provider must:(1) place an embargo on regulated information; or(2) cancel any embargo placed on regulated information by the person that has submitted the regulated information and disseminate the regulated information; or(3) cancel any embargo placed on regulated information by the FCA and disseminate the regulated information.
DTR 8.4.30RRP
A primary information provider must supply free of charge all regulated information that it disseminates, exclusive of all other information, to the FCA or an agent appointed by the FCA to act on its behalf.
DTR 8.4.32GRP
In considering whether a primary information provider satisfies the requirements of DTR 8.4.31 R, the FCA will consider, among other things, whether the primary information provider has in place appropriate measures to identify new and emerging risks which would be likely to prevent its compliance with DTR 8.4.11 R, DTR 8.4.19 R or DTR 8.4.20 R.
DTR 8.4.33RRP
A primary information provider must at all times:(1) deal with the FCA in an open and cooperative manner; and(2) deal with all enquiries raised by the FCA as soon as possible.
DTR 8.4.34RRP
A primary information provider must notify the FCA immediately if:(1) there is any change to the names and contact details of staff who are available to assist the FCA exercise its functions in relation to the dissemination of regulated information by the primary information provider; or(2) any contractual arrangement between the primary information provider and a media operator regarding the dissemination of regulated information is terminated; or(3) any changes are proposed
DTR 8.4.35RRP
If a primary information provider learns of a breach of its security it must:(1) notify the FCA immediately; and (2) provide the FCA as soon as possible with a report containing details of the security breach and the steps taken to rectify it.
DTR 8.4.36RRP
A primary information provider must notify the FCA and its clients as soon as possible if its ability to disseminate or continuously receive regulated information is disrupted.
DTR 8.4.38RRP
(1) Notifications must be made in writing.(2) Notifications to the FCA must be sent to the following address:Primary Market Specialist Supervision4Enforcement and Market Oversight Division1The Financial Conduct Authority12 Endeavour Square2London E20 1JN2Email: pmss@fca.org.uk4111
SUP 10C.11.1GRP
(1) Section 60(2A) of the Act (Applications for approval) says that, if a firm is applying for approval from the FCA or the PRA for a person to perform a designated senior management function, the regulator to which the application is being made must require the application to contain, or be accompanied by, a statement setting out the aspects of the affairs of the firm which it is intended that the person will be responsible for managing in performing the function. (2) That statement
SUP 10C.11.2GRP
(1) This section is about the FCA's requirements for statements of responsibilities.(2) However, in the case of a PRA-authorised person,6 where applications and notifications relate both to FCA-designated senior management functions and to PRA ones, the regulators’ requirements are consistent with each other.(3) The general material in this section (SUP 10C.11.13D5 to SUP 10C.11.35G) applies to statements of responsibilities submitted in all the cases covered by this section.
SUP 10C.11.3DRP
An application by a firm for the FCA's approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) for the performance of an FCA-designated senior management function must be accompanied by a statement of responsibilities (SUP 10C Annex 10D5).
SUP 10C.11.4GRP
(1) SUP 10C.10 (Application for approval and withdrawing an application for approval) explains the procedures for applying for approval.(2) SUP 10C.15 (Forms and other documents and how to submit them to the FCA) explains how applications for approval should be submitted.(3) See the table in SUP 10C.11.19G for examples of how the requirements of this section about including statements of responsibilities in applications for approval apply in different situations.
SUP 10C.11.5GRP
Under section 62A of the Act, a firm must provide the FCA with a revised statement of responsibilities if there has been any significant change in the responsibilities of an FCA-approved SMF manager. More precisely:(1) if a firm has made an application (which was granted) to the FCA for approval for a person to perform an FCA-designated senior management function; (2) the application contained, or was accompanied by, a statement of responsibilities; and(3) since the granting of
SUP 10C.11.6GRP
(1) This paragraph sets out non-exhaustive examples of potential changes which, in the FCA's view, may be significant and thus require the submission of a revised statement of responsibilities.(2) A variation of the FCA-approved SMF manager's approval, either at the firm's request or at the FCA's or (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6PRA's initiative, resulting in the imposition, variation or removal of a condition or time limit, may involve a significant change.(3) Fulfilling
SUP 10C.11.9GRP
(1) SUP 10C.15 (Forms and other documents and how to submit them to the FCA) explains how revised statements of responsibilities should be submitted.(2) See the table in SUP 10C.11.19G for examples of how the requirements of this section about submitting revised statements of responsibilities apply in different situations.(3) In particular, the table in SUP 10C.11.19G gives examples of how SUP 10C.11.7D(2) and (3) work5.
SUP 10C.11.10DRP
An application by a firm to the FCA for the variation of an existing approval under section 63ZA of the Act (Variation of a senior manager’s approval at request of 5authorised person) must be accompanied by a statement of responsibilities.
SUP 10C.11.11GRP
(1) See SUP 10C.13 (Variation of conditional and time-limited approvals) for more details about applications to vary an approval.(2) SUP 10C.15 (Forms and other documents and how to submit them to the FCA) explains how applications to vary an approval should be submitted.(3) See the table in SUP 10C.11.19G for examples of how the requirements of this section about submitting statements of responsibilities with applications to vary an approval apply in different situations.
SUP 10C.11.14GRP
(1) SUP 10C.11.13D means that, at any time, a firm should have a single document for an FCA-approved SMF manager5 that:(a) contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which that SMF manager has approval; and(b) where relevant, contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which the firm is applying for approval.(2) (In the case of a PRA-authorised person), the6 document in (1) should cover
SUP 10C.11.19GRP

Table: Examples5 of how the requirements for submitting statements of responsibilities work

1Example

Comments

(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.

There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions.

The combined document should be included with the application for approval.

(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering reporting function. Both firms are SMCR firms5.

There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm.

This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group.

(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function.

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions.

(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering reporting function5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated.

(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition.

The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application.

The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval.

(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering reporting function5.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions.

(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals.

The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director.

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function.

The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated.

(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm.

Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering reporting function5 and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The answer to example (5) applies.

The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that:

(1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function;

(2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function5; and

(3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5.

(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.

A then ceases to perform the money laundering reporting function5 but continues to perform the executive director function.5

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the money laundering reporting function5;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function and reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5.

(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm must submit:

(a) Form C for the PRA function;

(b) Form J; and

(c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function5.

The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA.

(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm.

The application is rejected.

The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval.

If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones5 clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away.

In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J.

In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document.

(13) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. Later, A is to be appointed as an executive director5 for the same firm.

This will not result in any significant5 changes to A’s duties in the money laundering reporting function5. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role in the money laundering reporting function5 since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment as executive director5.

The answer for example (4) applies.

The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties in the money laundering role as well as covering A’s appointment to perform the executive director function. It does not matter that the changes to A’s money laundering role5 are not significant.

(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change.

The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6

The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function.

The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions.

It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA.

2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary3 of firm X.

Firm X is an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm5 and firm3 Y is a UK SMCR firm5.

Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive director function5.

3

There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm.

7(16) An FCA-approved SMF manager goes on or returns from a temporary absence of longer than 12 weeks.

The firm must submit:

(a) Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R);

(b) Form J (SUP 10C Annex 9D); and

(c) an updated statement of responsibilities document (SUP 10C Annex 10D).

Note:5 The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D.5
SUP 10C.11.21GRP
(1) A complete set of current statement of responsibilities means all statements of responsibilities that the firm has provided to the FCA or (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6PRA as revised under section 62A of the Act and this chapter5.(2) A statement of responsibilities is not current if the person in question no longer performs any of the controlled functions5 to which it relates.
SUP 10C.11.22GRP
(1) A firm should consider past versions of its statements of responsibilities as an important part of its records and as an important resource for the FCA in supervising the firm.(2) Past versions of a firm'sstatements of responsibilities form part of its records under the regulatory system5.
SUP 10C.11.25GRP
A statement of responsibilities should be:(1) practical and useable by the FCA; (2) without unnecessary detail; and(3) succinct and clear.
SUP 10C.11.29GRP
(1) The definition of every FCA-designated senior management function contains a responsibility which is inherent, inseparable from and intrinsically built into the specific role. (2) In many ways, this inherent responsibility is the most important responsibility of any given SMF manager, as it provides a rationale as to why that specific function is subject to pre-approval by the FCA in the first place.(3) Even where an SMF manager has not been allocated any other responsibilities
SUP 10C.11.30GRP
(1) The FCA may request a firm to include specific responsibility for a regulatory outcome in the statement of responsibilities of the relevant SMF managers. (2) For example, where the FCA asks a firm to take remediation action following an internal or supervisory review or a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) and considers it appropriate for an SMF manager to take responsibility for that action, it may ask the firm to add an additional, customised,
SUP 10C.11.32GRP
(1) Where:(a) an FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility is divided or shared between several SMF managers5; or(b) any function allocated under SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility) is shared between several SMF managers (if that chapter applies to the firm)5;25the statement of responsibilities for each SMF manager should:(c) explain why this has been done; and(d) give full details of the arrangements, including the names
SUP 10C.11.34GRP
In general, the FCA expects the statement of responsibilities of a non-executive director who is an SMF manager to be less extensive than those of an executive SMF manager.
SUP 10C.11.35GRP
The FCA does not require any of the general duties of a non-executive director described in section 2 of COCON 1 Annex 1 (The general role of a NED) to be included in the non-executive director'sstatement of responsibilities.
REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4

(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

7[Note: SYSC 15A contains requirements relating to the operational resilience of UK RIEs]

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(ca)

the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.

4(f)

the resilience of its trading systems;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(g)

the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(h)

the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;

4(i)

the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;

4(j)

the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;

4(k)

the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];

4(l)

the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;

[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]

4(m)

the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;

4(n)

the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and

4(o)

the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]

4(3)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and

4(b)

monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.

4(4)

For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.

4(5)

The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.

4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);

4(b)

have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;

4(c)

monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;

4(d)

inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and

4(e)

provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.

4(2)

A market making agreement must specify-

4(a)

the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;

4(b)

where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);

4(c)

any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and

4(d)

where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).

4(3)

For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -

4(a)

the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;

4(b)

the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and

4(c)

the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.

4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must be able to -

4(a)

temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and

4(b)

in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.

4(2)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -

4(a)

the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;

4(b)

the nature of the trading venue market model; and

4(c)

the types of users,

4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.

4(3)

The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.

4(4)

If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]

4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access

4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -

4(1)

(a)

ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -

4(i)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6

4(ii)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6

4(iii)

is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6

4(iv)

is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation;

4(v)

is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or

4(vi)

is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;

4(b)

ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;

4(c)

ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6;

4(d)

set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;

4(e)

be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -

4(i)

other orders; or

4(ii)

trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and

4(f)

have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]

4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -

4(a)

be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4(b)

not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]

4(c)

impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.

4(2)

Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -

4(a)

adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;

4(b)

calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;

4(c)

imposing a higher fee -

4(i)

for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;

4(ii)

on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or

4(iii)

on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,

4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.

4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -

4(a)

the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and

4(b)

the persons initiating those orders.

4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes

4(1)

Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -

4(a)

shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]

4(b)

any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue.

[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

8(1A)

The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices.

[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4 (2)

The tick size regime must -

4(a)

be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and

4(b)

adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.

4(3)

The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]
REC 2.5.1BRRP
4In paragraph 3B(3) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, under which a UK RIE must report the parameters for halting trading to the FCA, such information must be provided to the FCA in writing and delivered by any one of the methods in REC 3.2.3R.
REC 2.5.3GRP
In assessing whether the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body in the performance of its relevant functions are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business, the FCA3 may have regard to the UK recognised body's:3(1) arrangements for managing, controlling and carrying out its relevant functions, including: (a) the distribution of duties and responsibilities among the members of the management body4 and the departments of the UK recognised
REC 2.5.4GRP
REC 2.5.5G to REC 2.5.20G4 set out other matters to which the FCA3 may have regard in assessing the UK RIE’s4 systems and controls used for the transmission of information, risk management, 4the operation of settlement arrangements (the matters covered in paragraph 4(2)(d) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations),4 the safeguarding and administration of assets and certain other aspects of its operations4. 33
REC 2.5.4AGRP
4Where the MiFID/MiFIR Systems Regulations apply to a UK RIE, the FCA will, in assessing the UK RIE’s systems and controls, additionally have regard to the UK RIE’s satisfaction of any relevant requirements in those regulations. Of particular importance is MiFID RTS 7, which will apply where a trading venue allows or enables algorithmic trading.
REC 2.5.5GRP
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the transmission of information, the FCA3 may also have regard to the extent to which these systems and controls ensure that information is transmitted promptly and accurately: 3(1) within the UK recognised body itself; (2) to members; and (3) (where appropriate) to other market participants or other relevant persons.
REC 2.5.8GRP
In assessing a UK RIE's systems and controls for 4the operation of settlement arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes through which the UK RIE's transactions are4 cleared4 and settled, including:3333(1) (in relation to non-derivatives transactions)4 a UK RIE’s arrangements with another person4 under which any rights or liabilities arising from transactions are discharged including arrangements3 for transmission to a settlement
REC 2.5.8AGRP
4Where the requirements of MiFID RTS 7 in respect of effecting and monitoring transactions do not apply to a UK RIE, the FCA may, in addition, assess the UK RIE’s systems and controls for the effecting and monitoring of transactions. In doing so, it will have regard to the UK RIE’s arrangements under which orders are received and matched, and its arrangements for trade and transaction reporting.
REC 2.5.9GRP
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes by which the UK recognised body: 3(1) records the assets held and the identity of the owners of (and other persons with relevant rights over) those assets; (2) records any instructions given in relation to those assets;(3) records the carrying out of those instructions;(4)
REC 2.5.11GRP
The FCA3 recognises that a UK RIE3 has legitimate interests of its own and that its general business policy may properly be influenced by other persons (such as its owners). Such a connection does not necessarily imply the existence of a conflict of interest nor is it necessary to exclude individuals closely connected with other persons (for example, those responsible for the stewardship of the owner's interests) from all decision-making processes in a UK recognised body. However,
REC 2.5.12GRP
REC 2.5.13 G to REC 2.5.16 G set out the factors to which the FCA3 may have regard in assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for managing conflicts of interest.3
REC 2.5.13GRP
The FCA3 may have regard to the arrangements a UK recognised body makes to structure itself and to allocate responsibility for decisions so that it can continue to take proper regulatory decisions notwithstanding any conflicts of interest, including:3(1) the size and composition of the management body4 and relevant committees; (2) the roles and responsibilities of members of the management body4, especially where they also have responsibilities in other organisations; (3) the
REC 2.5.14GRP
The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33
REC 2.5.15GRP
The FCA3 may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the management body4, members of relevant committees and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:34(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances in which a
REC 2.5.16GRP
The FCA3 may also have regard to the arrangements made:3(1) for enforcing rules or other provisions applicable to staff and other persons involved in regulatory decisions; and(2) to keep records of disclosures of conflicts of interest and the steps taken to handle them.
REC 2.5.17GRP
A UK recognised body's arrangements for internal and external audit will be an important part of its systems and controls. In assessing the adequacy of these arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the UK recognised body'sgoverning body;(2) the frequency and scope of external audit; (3) the provision and scope of internal audit; (4) the staffing and resources of the UK recognised body's internal audit
REC 2.5.18GRP
Where MiFID RTS 7 applies to the UK RIE4, the FCA may, in assessing the adequacy of the UK recognised body’s information technology systems,4 have regard to:33(1) the organisation, management and resources of the information technology department within the UK recognised body;(2) the arrangements for 4documenting the design, development, implementation and use of information technology systems; and(3) the arrangements for maintaining, recording and enforcing technical and operational
REC 2.5.20GRP
The FCA3 may have regard to the arrangements made to keep clear and complete audit trails of all uses of information technology systems and to reconcile (where appropriate) the audit trails with equivalent information held by system users and other interested parties.3
SUP 15.7.2GRP
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.4 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given
SUP 15.7.3GRP
The FCA4 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FCA4 on its behalf.7777
SUP 15.7.4RRP
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 and77(2) delivered to the FCA4 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5AR6.777
SUP 15.7.5ARRP

7Methods of notification

Method of delivery

1.

Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G

2.

Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt

3.

Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

4.

Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA

5.

Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification

6.

Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk.
SUP 15.7.6AGRP

7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:

  1. (1)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    12 Endeavour Square5

    London, E20 1JN5

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or

  2. (2)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    Quayside House 127

    Fountainbridge

    Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7

SUP 15.7.7GRP
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FCA4 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FCA4 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).7777
SUP 15.7.8GRP
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FCA4 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FCA.4 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.7777
SUP 15.7.9GRP
Firms wishing to communicate with the FCA4 by electronic mail or fax should obtain the appropriate address or number from the FCA4appropriate regulator.7777
SUP 15.7.10RRP
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the end of that period; and 77(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 77
SUP 15.7.14GRP
The FCA4 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FCA.4 [For further details see the FCA's4 website.]777777
SUP 15.7.16GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FCA4. They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.77
SUP 16.3.8RRP
A written report must be delivered to the FCA28 by one of the methods listed in SUP 16.3.9 R.224949
SUP 16.3.9RRP

Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)

228

Method of delivery

1.

Post or hand deliver33 to the published address of the FCA49 for submission of reports. If hand delivering mark the report for the attention of ‘Central Reporting’ and obtain a dated receipt.33

49

2.

[deleted]33

224949

3.

Electronic mail to the published e-mail address 33of the FCA's49 Central Reporting team.22

2249

4.22

Online submission via the appropriate systems accessible from the22FCA28 website

4949822
SUP 16.3.10GRP
  1. (1)

    The 33published address of the FCA49 for postal submission of reports is:

    49

    Central Reporting22

    The Financial Conduct49 Authority

    49

    PO BOX 35747

    London E14 5WP

  2. (2)

    The 33published address of the FCA49 for hand delivery of reports is:

    49
    1. (a)

      Central Reporting22

      The Financial Conduct Authority38

      4949

      12 Endeavour Square35

      London, E20 1JN35

      if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA28 is based in London, or:

      4949
    2. (b)

      Central Reporting33

      The Financial Conduct Authority38

      4949

      Quayside House

      127 Fountainbridge

      Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

      if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA49 is based in Edinburgh.2

      49
  3. (3)

    The current published email address 33for the FCA’s Central Reporting team is regulatory.reports@fca.org.uk. Please note that the 33Central Reporting team does not handle general correspondence between firms and the FCA, and will not respond to queries3338. Accordingly, firms should not make submissions to the Central Reporting team’s email address33 other than as directed in SUP 16.3.8R.

    2233494949332833494933
SUP 16.3.11RRP
A firm must submit reports required under this chapter to the FCA28 containing all the information required.4949
SUP 16.3.12GRP
SUP 15.6 refers to and contains requirements regarding the steps that firms must take to ensure that information provided to the FCA28 is accurate and complete. Those requirements apply to reports required to be submitted under this chapter.4949
SUP 16.3.13RRP
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the FCA28 no later than the due date, specified for that report.4949(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the FCA28 no later than the first business day after the due date. 4949(3) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter
SUP 16.3.14AGRP
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FCA28 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which
SUP 16.3.15GRP
The FCA28 may from time to time send reminders to firms when reports are overdue. Firms should not, however, assume that the FCA28 has received a report merely because they have not received a reminder.1494949
SUP 16.3.16GRP
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report38 by the due date. If a report is received by the FCA28 after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:494949(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by the due date in accordance
SUP 16.3.17RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FCA28 if it changes its accounting reference date.4949(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.4(4) SUP 16.10.4A R to SUP 16.10.4C G (Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the FCA38) apply to any notification
SUP 16.3.18GRP
SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the FCA28 of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the FCA.38 This is because many due dates for reporting to the FCA28 are linked to firms'accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the FCA28 have due dates for submission which are linked to the firm's
SUP 16.3.19GRP
If more than one firm in a group intends to change its accounting reference date at the same time, a single notification may be given to the FCA,38 as described in SUP 15.7.8 G.284949
SUP 16.3.22GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FCA.38 They do not apply to reports required under SUP 1638, because of the specific rules in this section.284949
SUP 16.3.23GRP
When the FCA28 receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part 23 of the Act38 (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential (see41SUP 2.2.4G).41494949493849
SUP 16.3.24GRP
SUP 2.3.12AG states that the FCA38 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The FCA’s disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4G38 (Confidentiality of information). Also, some value measures data in SUP 16.27 is used by the FCA to create published guidance. This public disclosure is to assist the FCA to discharge its public fun
RCB 3.2.1DRP
The issuer must send to the FCA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
RCB 3.2.3GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to be able to justify any reliance it places on advice or reports which are not reasonably contemporaneous with the confirmation.
RCB 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects the asset pool monitor's report1 to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA may also specify additional matters that the asset pool monitor's report should address in relation to a particular issuer.11
RCB 3.2.4AGRP
1The FCA's use of its power under Regulation 18 of the RCB Regulations may include requiring the issuer to provide to the FCA copies of the advice or reports referred to in RCB 3.2.2 D.
RCB 3.2.4BDRP
1The issuer must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA when it sends the confirmation required by this section to the FCA.
RCB 3.2.6DRP
The issuer must send each confirmation to the FCA within one month after the relevant confirmation date.
RCB 3.2.9DRP
The issuer must ensure that a director or1 a senior manager signs the annual confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.
RCB 3.2.9AGRP
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
RCB 3.2.10DRP
If the issuer is in insolvency, the owner must send the FCA under RCB 3.2.1 D:(1) a confirmation of compliance within one month of the date of insolvency; and(2) annual confirmations by the same dates as the date the confirmations under RCB 3.2.5 D are due.
RCB 3.2.11DRP
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
RCB 3.2.13GRP
1The FCA expects the inspection by the asset pool monitor of the compliance of the issuer or owner (as the case may be) with the relevant requirements in the RCB Regulations to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA expects that the inspection will be conducted on an agreed-upon-procedures basis.
RCB 3.2.14GRP
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
RCB 3.2.15GRP
1If the asset pool monitor is changed, the issuer (or owner, as the case may be) should notify the FCA when the new asset pool monitor is appointed, giving the name of the new asset pool monitor and details of the reason for the change.
DTR 8.5.1RRP
A primary information provider must submit to the FCA an annual report prepared by a reporting accountant qualified to act as auditor which states that the primary information provider has satisfied its continuing obligations in DTR 8.4 in the preceding 12 months.
DTR 8.5.3RRP
The annual report must be sent to the FCA within 3 months of the anniversary of the date of the primary information provider's approval as a primary information provider.
DTR 8.5.4RRP
(1) The FCA may require a primary information provider to provide specified information or specified documents to the FCA.(2) The primary information provider must as soon as practicable provide to the FCA any information or documents it has been required to provide under (1).(3) This rule applies only to information or documents reasonably required by the FCA in connection with the performance of its functions in relation to a primary information provider.
DTR 8.5.5GRP
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide at any time following the grant of a primary information provider's approval.
DTR 8.5.6GRP
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
DTR 8.5.7GRP
The decision-making procedures that the FCA will follow when it uses its disciplinary powers in relation to a primary information provider are set out in DEPP.
DTR 8.5.8RRP
A request by a primary information provider for its approval as a primary information provider to be suspended must be in writing and must include:(1) the primary information provider's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the primary information provider requests the suspension to take effect; and(4) the name and contact details of the person at the primary information provider with whom the FCA should liaise in relation
DTR 8.5.10RRP
A request by a primary information provider for its approval as a primary information provider to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the primary information provider's name; (2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the primary information provider requests the cancellation to take effect; and(4) the name and contact details of the person at the primary information provider with whom the FCA should liaise in relation
DTR 8.5.12GRP
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide or suspend a primary information provider's approval if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89V of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
REC 5.2.1GRP
An applicant for recognised body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on the recognised body requirements3 applicable to UK recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
REC 5.2.1AGRP
In addition, under section 290A of the Act (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
REC 5.2.2GRP
(1) There is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and practical aspects of its application.5(2) It is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed and clear proposal.
REC 5.2.3GRP
An application should:(1) be made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations7;5335563(2) in the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory provisions and in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
REC 5.2.5GRP
A prospective applicant who is an authorised person may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as an authorised person can be used to support an application to become a UK recognised body. 5
REC 5.2.5AGRP
A UK RIE applying for recognition as a RAP may wish to consult the FCA about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as a UK RIE can be used to support an application to be recognised as a RAP. 76355
REC 5.2.6GRP
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for a RAP applicant) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,76 the FCA5 may require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's information technology systems.355
REC 5.2.6AGRP
1In the case of an application to become a UK RIE6 or a RAP7 under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and (for a RAP applicant) regulation 2(8) of the RAP regulations,7 , the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning with the date on which it receives the completed application.3635
REC 5.2.7GRP
At any time after making a formal application, the applicant may make amendments to its rules, guidance or any other part of its application submitted to the FCA.555
REC 5.2.8GRP
(1) The FCA5 will keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
REC 5.2.12GRP
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order it will discuss its concerns with the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G). If the FCA5 decides that it will not make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) or (in the case of a RAP) regulation 5 of
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.76

3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for a RAP) auction platform,7 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products which it operates or plans to operate.76

635443

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks.

5

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5.

5

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached.

5

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for a RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status7.

63

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

5

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

5

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
EG 19.36.1RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations implemented2 the PRIIPs Regulation (before it was brought into UK law)2. The FCA has investigative and enforcement powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations, PRIIPs Regulation and any onshored regulation which was an EU regulation2 made under the PRIIPs Regulation. The PRIIPs Regulation imposes requirements on both authorised
EG 19.36.2RP
1The FCA’s approach to enforcing the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations, whether the person is authorised or not, will mirror our general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. We will seek to exercise our enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with our publicly stated policies. We will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising our enforcement powers. Finally,
EG 19.36.3RP
1The regulatory powers which the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations provide to the FCA include:(1) the power to appoint investigators and require information;(2) powers of entry and inspection;(3) the power of public censure;(4) the power to impose financial penalties;(5) the power to impose a limitation, restriction or requirement; (6) the power to apply for an injunction or restitution order;(7) the power to require restitution; and(8) the power
EG 19.36.5RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA’s investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA’s approach are described below.
EG 19.36.7RP
1For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that we have appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases. The FCA’s policy in civil investigations
EG 19.36.9RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations do not require the FCA to have published procedures for commencing criminal prosecutions. However, in these situations the FCA expects that it will normally follow its decision-making procedures for the equivalent decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 12.
EG 19.36.10RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations do not require the FCA to have published procedures to apply to the court for an injunction or restitution order. However, the FCA will normally follow its decision-making procedure for the equivalent decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 10 and EG 11.
EG 19.36.11RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations require the FCA to give third party rights as set out in section 393 of the Act and to give access to certain material as set out in section 394 of the Act.
EG 19.36.12RP
1Certain FCA decisions (for example making an order prohibiting a person from marketing a PRIIP; making an order requiring a person to suspend the marketing of a PRIIP) may be referred to the Tribunal by an aggrieved party.
EG 19.36.13RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations the FCA will have regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. The FCA’s policy in relation to determining the level of financial penalty includes having regard, where relevant, to DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D.
EG 19.36.14RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations to assist it exercise its functions under the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. [Note: See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.]
EG 19.36.15RP
1The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
EG 19.36.16RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
DEPP 1.2.1GRP
Section 395 of the Act (The FCA's and PRA's procedures) requires the FCA2 to publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based or by two or more persons who include a person not directly involved in establishing
DEPP 1.2.2GRP

Table: Summary of statutory and related notices

Notice

Description

Act reference

Further information

Warning notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 proposes to take and about the right to make representations.

2

Section 387

DEPP 2.2

Decision notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 has decided to take. The FCA2 may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents.

22

Section 388

DEPP 2.3

Notice of discontinuance

Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued.

Section 389

DEPP 1.2.4 G and DEPP 3.2.26 G

Final notice

Sets out the terms of the action that the FCA2 is taking.

2

Section 390

DEPP 1.2.4 G

Supervisory notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part 4A permission.2

22

Section 395(13)

DEPP 2.2 and DEPP 2.3
DEPP 1.2.4AGRP
2Section 395 of the Act also requires the FCA to publish a statement of its procedure for decisions which give3 rise to an obligation for the PRA to include a statement under section 387(1A) in a warning notice or a statement under section 388(1A) in a decision notice as follows:(1) Section 387(1A) provides that where the FCA proposes to refuse consent for the purposes of section 55F, 55I or 59 of the Act, or to give conditional consent as mentioned in section 55F(5), 55I(8) or
DEPP 1.2.4BGRP
2Where an application for Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the permission is for certain regulated activities only.
DEPP 1.2.4CGRP
2Where an application to vary a Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55I of the Act). The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed variation if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives. FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations, or the PRA specifying the permission
DEPP 1.2.4DGRP
2Where an application to perform a controlled function is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator, the PRA can only approve a person to perform a controlled function with the consent of the FCA (section 59(4)(b) of the Act). Where the application is a relevant senior management application, the FCA’s consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing conditions, or the PRA giving approval only for a limited period.3
DEPP 1.2.5GRP
Decisions on whether to give a statutory notice will be taken by a 'decision maker'. The FCA's2 assessment of who is the appropriate decision maker is subject to the requirements of section 395 of the Act and will depend upon the nature of the decision, including its complexity, importance and urgency. References to the 'decision maker' in DEPP are to:2(1) FCA staff under executive procedures4; or(2) the Regulatory Decisions Committee (RDC)4; or22(3) FCA2 staff under the settlement
DEPP 1.2.6GRP
The decision maker will also take decisions associated with a statutory notice (a 'statutory notice associated decision'). Statutory notice associated decisions include decisions:(1) to set or extend the period for making representations;(2) on whether the FCA2 is required to give a copy of the statutory notice to any third party and, if so, the period for the third party to make representations; and2(3) on whether to refuse access to FCA2 material, relevant to the relevant statutory
DEPP 1.2.7GRP
In each case, the decision maker will make decisions by applying the relevant statutory tests, having regard to the context and nature of the matter, that is, the relevant facts, law, and FCA2 priorities and policies (including on matters of legal interpretation).2
DEPP 1.2.8GRP
The FCA2 will make and retain appropriate records of those decisions, including records of meetings and the representations (if any) and materials considered by the decision makers.2
DEPP 1.2.9GRP
DEPP 2 to DEPP 5 set out:(1) which decisions require the giving of statutory notices and who takes them (DEPP 2);(2) the nature and procedures of the RDC (DEPP 3);(3) the procedure for decision making by FCA2 staff under executive procedures (DEPP 4);2(4) the procedure for decision making by FCA2 staff under the settlement decision procedure (DEPP 5).2
EG 19.23.1RP
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations. The Electronic Money Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of electronic money institutions.
EG 19.23.2RP
[deleted]21
EG 19.23.3RP
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Electronic Money Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the electronic money
EG 19.23.4RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.23.6RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Electronic Money Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Electronic Money Regulations is to use powers to compel information in the same way as it would in the course
EG 19.23.7RP
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some of the decisions under the Electronic Money Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.33.
EG 19.23.9RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations do not require the FCA to have published procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, in these situations the FCA expects that it will normally follow its decision-making procedures for the equivalent decisions under the Act.
EG 19.23.10RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations require the FCA to give third party rights as set out in section 393 of the Act and to give access to material as set out in section 394 of the Act in certain cases.
EG 19.23.11RP
1Certain FCA decisions (for example the cancellation of an authorisation or the imposition of a financial penalty) may be referred to the Tribunal by an aggrieved party.
EG 19.23.12RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of a financial penalty the FCA's policy includes having regard to relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5D.
EG 19.23.13RP
1When determining whether to suspend the authorisation or, as the case may be, the registration of an electronic money institution or limit or otherwise restrict the carrying on of electronic money issuance or payments services business by an electronic money issuer the FCA's policy will have regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
EG 19.23.14RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.23.15RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Electronic Money Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
SUP 15.8.1RRP
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
SUP 15.8.2RRP
If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.5220
SUP 15.8.3RRP
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
SUP 15.8.4GRP
(1) 467In accordance with regulation 2317 of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 26 June 201717 , a firm is required to notify the FCA:201111111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
SUP 15.8.5GRP
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 immediately before 26 June 201717 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact within 30 days17 and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2)17.1111112011
SUP 15.8.6RRP
If a UK UCITS management company intends to delegate to a third party any one or more of its functions for the more efficient conduct of its business, it must first inform the FCA20 in an appropriate manner.141420[Note: article 13(1)(a) of the UCITS Directive]14
SUP 15.8.8RRP
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
SUP 15.8.9RRP
[deleted]1910152020
SUP 15.8.10RRP
16A tied MCD credit intermediary must notify the FCA, as soon as reasonably practicable, if it intends to cease acting on behalf of and under the full responsibility of any firm.
SUP 15.8.11RRP
16A MCD credit intermediary must notify the FCA, as soon as reasonably practicable, if it intends to start acting on behalf of and under the full responsibility of any firm.
SUP 15.8.12DRP
18Unless SUP 15.8.13D applies, a full credit institution must notify the FCA before it starts to provide an account information service or a payment initiation service.
SUP 15.8.13DRP
18A full credit institution which:(1) prior to 13 January 2018, started to provide a service which, if provided on or after 13 January 2018, would have constituted an account information service or a payment initiation service; and(2) continues to provide an account information service or a payment initiation service on 13 January 2018, must notify the FCA that it is providing account information services or payment initiation services by 10 February 2018.
SUP 15.11.1GRP
1Under section 64A of the Act, the FCA may make rules about the conduct of approved persons and certain other 4persons who work for a firm4.
SUP 15.11.4GRP
Under section 64C of the Act, a firm must notify the FCA if it takes disciplinary action against certain people working for an SMCR firm5 and the reason for this action is a reason specified in rules made by the FCA (those rules are set out4 in SUP 15.11.6R)4. 4
SUP 15.11.6RRP
If a reason for taking disciplinary action as referred to in section 64C of the Act (Requirement for authorised persons to notify regulator of disciplinary action)5 is any action, failure to act or circumstance that amounts to a breach of COCON, then the SMCR firm5 is required to notify the FCA of the disciplinary action.4
SUP 15.11.6AGRP
4The effect of section 64C of the Act and SUP 15.11.6R is that the reporting obligation in section 64C of the Act and in this section: (1) only applies to SMCR firms; and5(2) only covers persons who are subject to COCON (who are called conduct rules staff in the FCA Handbook) rather than to the whole workforce of an SMCR firm.5
SUP 15.11.7GRP
A firm should make a separate notification about a person under section 64C of the Act where:(1) it has made a notification to the FCA about the5person pursuant to SUP 15.3.11R(1)(a) because of a breach of COCON2; and(2) it subsequently takes disciplinary action against the person for the action, failure to act, or circumstance, that amounted to a breach of COCON.
SUP 15.11.8GRP
If, after a firm has made a notification for a person (A) pursuant to section 64C of the Act,2 it becomes aware of facts or matters which cause it to change its view that A has breached COCON, or cause it to determine that A has breached a provision of COCON other than the provision to which the notification related, the firm should inform the FCA of those facts and matters and its revised conclusion in line with a firm’s obligation to comply with Principle 11, SUP 15.6.4R and,
SUP 15.11.9GRP
(1) If a firm takes disciplinary action as a result of a conduct breach (see SUP 15.11.6R) against an employee but the employee has appealed or plans to appeal, the firm should still report the disciplinary action under section 64C of the Act but should include the appeal in the notification.5(2) The firm should update the FCA on the outcome of any appeal.52
SUP 15.11.11GRP
In relation to any conduct rules staff, the FCA does not expect a firm to notify it pursuant to2section 64C of the Act if the2 breach of COCON occurred before the application of COCON to that firm.
SUP 15.11.12GRP
Where a firm is required to notify the FCA pursuant to2section 64C of the Act and that notification relates to an SMF manager, SUP 10C sets out how and when the notification must be made, and the relevant notification rules in SUP 10C apply.
SUP 15.11.13RRP
(1) A firm must make any notifications required pursuant to section 64C of the Act relating to conduct rules staff other than SMF managers4in accordance with SUP 15.11.13R to SUP 15.11.15R.3(2) That notification must be made annually.3(3) Each notification must:3(a) cover;63(i) 6(in the case of a firm falling within SYSC 23 Annex 1 6.7R (credit firms with limited permission)) its annual financial reporting period ending on its accounting reference date; or(ii) 6(for any other
SUP 15.11.14RRP
(1) A firm other than a credit union must make each notification pursuant to SUP 15.11.13R (notifications about section 64C of the Act relating to conduct rules staff other than SMF managers4) by submitting it online through the FCA’s website using the electronic system made available by the FCA for this purpose.3(2) A firm must use the version of Form H (named REP008 – Notification of Disciplinary Action) 4made available on the electronic system referred to in (1), which is based
SUP 15.11.14AGRP
(1) 3If the information technology systems used by the FCA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that:(a) online submission is unavailable; and(b) the alternative methods of submission in SUP 15.11.15R apply.(2) Where SUP 15.11.14R(3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2R (Emergency) does not apply.
SUP 15.11.20GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
EG 19.29.1RP
1The Immigration Regulations (as amended by the Immigration Act 2014 (Current Accounts) (Excluded Accounts and Notification Requirements) Regulations 2016)2 give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of sections 40, 40A, 40B and 40G2 of the Immigration Act 2014 (as amended by the Immigration Act 2016)2 (the Immigration Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Immigration Regulations.
EG 19.29.2RP
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Immigration Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is
EG 19.29.3RP
1The Immigration Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative and sanctioning powers under the Act. The FCA has adopted procedures and policies for the use of those powers that are akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.29.5RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Immigration Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Immigration Regulations is to use powers to
EG 19.29.6RP
1The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Immigration Regulations, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3.
EG 19.29.7RP
1The Immigration Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 12.
EG 19.29.8RP
1The Immigration Regulations apply sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the Immigration Regulations and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material.
EG 19.29.10RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
EG 19.29.11RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Immigration Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA’s settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.29.12RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
EG 19.29.13RP
1The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
EG 19.28.1RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of the rules against referral fees contained in sections 56 to 60 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (the LASPO Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Referral Fees Regulations.
EG 19.28.2RP
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Referral Fees Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who
EG 19.28.3RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative and sanctioning powers under the Act. The FCA has adopted procedures and policies for the use of those powers that are akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.28.5RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Referral Fees Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Referral Fees Regulations is to use powers
EG 19.28.6RP
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Referral Fees Regulations, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3.
EG 19.28.7RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 12.
EG 19.28.8RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to apply to the court for an injunction or restitution order. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 10 and EG 11.
EG 19.28.9RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations apply sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the Referral Fees Regulations and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material.
EG 19.28.11RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
EG 19.28.12RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Referral Fees Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA's settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.28.13RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3. However, the FCA does not have the power to suspend an authorised person’spermission under the Referral Fees Regulations.
EG 19.28.14RP
1The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
SUP 10A.14.1GRP
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
SUP 10A.14.2GRP
If:7(1) a firm is applying for approval for someone to perform a controlled function under this chapter; and 7(2) that person is also ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or a PRA controlled function in relation to the same firm or in relation to a firm in the same group;7the firm should generally use Form E. Further details can be found in SUP 10A.14.4D.75555
SUP 10A.14.6GRP
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by the appointed representative of one principal7, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by the appointed representative of a new principal7, the new principal7 will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled function by that person. This
SUP 10A.14.7GRP
[deleted]5
SUP 10A.14.8RRP
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C (SUP 10C Annex 5R)5 no later than ten4 business days after an FCA-approved person permanently8 ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function in relation to7 the same firm or to a firm in the same7group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that
SUP 10A.14.10RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm or the appointed representative7 has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation
SUP 10A.14.11GRP
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
SUP 10A.14.12GRP
A firm is responsible for notifying the FCA if any FCA-approved person has permanently8 ceased to perform an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its appointed representative or former appointed representative or where any such FCA-approved person is temporarily absent8.
SUP 10A.14.13GRP
A firm can submit Form C or Form E 6to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which they perform4 an FCA controlled function, they4 will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled
SUP 10A.14.15RRP
If an FCA-approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the authorised approved person employer7 must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R)5 of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.
SUP 10A.14.16GRP
The duty to notify in SUP 10A.14.15 R does not apply to changes to an FCA-approved person's private address.
SUP 10A.14.17RRP
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.21GRP
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10C Annex 3D7), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R5). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
SUP 10A.14.23GRP
An example of where a firm should use Form D is when an individual who is appointed by one appointed representative becomes employed by another appointed representative but continues to perform the customer function for the firm. The firm should notify the FCA by completing Section 1.07 of Form D.
REC 2A.4.1GRP
3Under regulation 5A (Power to impose civil penalties) of the RAP Regulations, where the FCA considers that a RAP has contravened any requirement in regulations 17, 18(8), 19(1) or (2), or 37 of the UK auctioning regulations, the FCA has the power to impose a civil penalty on that RAP.
REC 2A.4.2GRP
3Where the FCA is entitled to impose a penalty on a RAP, it may instead publish a statement censuring it.
REC 2A.4.4GRP
3The power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations to impose a civil penalty or publish a statement adds to the FCA's other supervisory powers in relation to RAPs (see REC 4) and its power to impose penalties on a RAP under the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will use this power under the RAP Regulations where it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.2.1G. In deciding between a civil penalty or a public statement, the FCA will also
REC 2A.4.5GRP
3The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed officers to carry out an investigation under either or both the RAP Regulations or the Money Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases.
REC 2A.4.6GRP
3Where the FCA uses the power to impose a penalty, it will be for an amount that is effective, proportionate and dissuasive and with regard to relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D in determining the appropriate level of financial penalty.
REC 2A.4.7GRP
3The FCA will also have regard to whether the person followed any of the FCA’s guidance and will not take action under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations where there are reasonable grounds for it to be satisfied that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the requirement was complied with.
REC 2A.4.8GRP
3When the FCA proposes or decides to take action against a RAP in exercise of its power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, it must give the RAP a warning notice or a decision notice respectively. Those notices must state the amount of the penalty or set out the terms of the statement, as applicable. On receiving a warning notice, the RAP has a right to make representations on the FCA’s proposed decision.
REC 2A.4.9GRP
3Where the FCA is proposing or deciding to publish a statement censuring a RAP or impose a penalty on the RAP under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, the FCA’s decision maker will be the RDC. This is to ensure that the FCA’s power to censure or impose a penalty on a RAP has the same layer of separation in the decision-making process, and is exercised consistently with, similar penalty and censure powers of the FCA under other legislation. The RDC will make its decisions following
REC 2A.4.10GRP
3Sections 393 and 394 of the Act apply to notices referred to in this section. See DEPP 2.4 (Third party rights and access to FCA material).
REC 2A.4.11GRP
3As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases to assist it to exercise its functions in the most efficient and economic way. The settlement discount scheme set out in DEPP 6.7 applies to penalties imposed under the RAP Regulations.
REC 2A.4.12GRP
3The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that it has outlined in EG 6.