Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
161 - 180 of 564 items.
Most of the rules in this chapter apply when a firmapproves a financial promotion of qualifying credit in the same way as when a firmcommunicates a financial promotion of qualifying credit itself. Therefore, a firm has a similar responsibility for a financial promotion of qualifying credit that it approves, as for one that it communicates.
A firm must not communicate or approve a financial promotion which relates to qualifying credit provided by an overseas person, unless:(1) the financial promotion of qualifying credit makes clear which firm has approved or communicated it and, where relevant, explains:(a) that the rules made under the Act for the protection of customers do not apply;(b) the extent and level to which the compensation scheme will be available or, if the scheme will not be available, a statement
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
1This table belongs to COLL 7.4.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.4)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an AUT or terminating a sub-fund under FCArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 251 of the Act. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.4.5 R (4)) |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Receive FCA approval |
N + one month On receipt of notice from the FCA |
Section 251 of the Act |
2 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4.3R |
3 |
Trustee to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4.4R(1) to (5) |
4 |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4.5R(5) |
|
5 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4.4R(6) |
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in (2) and not otherwise:1(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing), COLL 6.6.20R to COLL 6.6.24G (Assessment of value)4 and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund;1(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel1units, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4.4 R (1) or (2);11(c) the manager
5An authorised fund manager 6 subject to COLL 6.12.3R(2) must notify the FCA of the information specified in points (a) and (b) of that rule:(1) annually, within 30 business days of 31 October, with information that is accurate as of 31 October of that year;(2) using the form in COLL 6 Annex 2R; and(3) by submitting it:(a) online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA’s website; or(b) if the appropriate systems are unavailable, via email to fundsupervision@fca.org.uk.
Authorised fund managers are advised that CESR issued guidelines prior to the revision of the UCITS Directive in 2009 which, to the extent they remain compatible with the rules and other guidance in COLL, should be complied with in applying the rules in this section. These guidelines are available at:Guidelines - Risk management principles for UCITS (CESR/09-178)https://www.esma.europa.eu/sites/default/files/library/2015/11/09_178.pdf4
(1) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.1R]66(2) [deleted]66(3) [deleted]6(4) [deleted]66(5) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(1)]6(6) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(2)]66(7) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.4R]6
[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.6R]6
3A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing of the intention of another member of its group which is not a firm to issue a capital instrument which the firm intends to include within its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group5 as soon as it becomes aware of the intention of the groupundertaking to issue the capital instrument. When giving notice, a firm must:(1) provide details of the amount of capital
(1) This rule sets out how to determine whether minority interests in an undertaking in a UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group5 may be included in tier one capital, tier two capital or tier three capital for the purpose of calculating consolidated capital resources (each referred to as a "tier" of capital in this rule).(2) A firm must identify the item of capital of the undertaking in question that gives rise to that minority interest.(3) A firm must include the minority
1This chapter applies, unless otherwise stated in or in relation to a rule, to:(1) a firm with respect to consumer credit lending;(2) a firm with respect to consumer hiring;(3) a firm with respect to operating an electronic system in relation to lending, in relation to a borrower under a P2P agreement;(4) a firm with respect to debt collecting.
(1) In accordance with CONC 1.2.2 Rfirms must ensure that their employees and agents comply with CONC and must take reasonable steps to ensure that other persons acting on the firm's behalf act in accordance with CONC.(2) The rule in CONC 1.2.2 R is particularly important in relation to the requirements in CONC 7, for example, in dealing with an individual from whom the person referred to in the rule is seeking to collect a debt.(3) In this chapter the expression “arrears” includes
(1) 2In this chapter, except for CONC 7.6.15AG:(a) a reference to a borrower, a customer or a hirer includes a reference to an individual other than the borrower or the hirer (in this chapter, referred to as “the guarantor”) who has provided a guarantee or an indemnity (or both) in relation to:(i) a regulated credit agreement; or(ii) a regulated consumer hire agreement; or(iii) a P2P agreement in respect of which the borrower is an individual;where it would not do so but for this
(1) The rules in this chapter specify the types of documents and records that must be maintained in a firm'sCASS resolution pack and the retrieval period for the pack. The firm should maintain the component documents of the CASS resolution pack in order for them to be retrieved in accordance with CASS 10.1.7 R, and should not use the retrieval period to start producing these documents.(2) The contents of the documents that constitute the CASS resolution pack will change from time
For the purpose of this chapter, a firm will be treated as satisfying a rule in this chapter requiring it to include a document in its CASS resolution pack if a member of that firm'sgroup includes that document in its own CASS resolution pack, provided that:(1) that group member is subject to the same rule; and(2) the firm is still able to comply with CASS 10.1.7 R.
All rules in SUP 12 apply in relation to introducer appointed representatives except for:(1) SUP 12.4.2 R, SUP 12.4.5B R and SUP 12.4.5C, on the appointment of appointed representatives, which are replaced by SUP 12.4.6 R;5(2) SUP 12.5.6A R on required contract terms, which is replaced by SUP 12.5.7 R;5(2A) 27SUP 12.6A.2R to SUP 12.6A.4R; and(3) SUP 12.9.1 R (4) (Record keeping).5
(1) A representative is an individual who is appointed by a firm or an appointed representative, to carry on any of the activities in (1)(a) to (c):54(a) advising on investments;5(b) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments;5(c) dealing in investments as agent.5(2) If a firm appoints an appointed representative who is an individual in (1), that appointed representative will also be a representative. The individual may need to be approved to perform the customer function9,
(1) 20
A MiFID optional exemption appointed representative is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID optional exemption firm. Such appointed representatives are not also tied agents since they do not act on behalf of a MiFID investment firm in respect of MiFID business.(2)
Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of any other
(1) 20
If a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints a person to act under its full and unconditional responsibility but only for the purpose of selling, or advising clients in relation to, structured deposits (and not any of the activities within section 39(7) of the Act24), that person will not be a tied agent in respect of that activity.(2)
Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a structured deposit appointed representative
2SUP 16.3.11 R (Complete reporting) and SUP 16.3.13 R (Timely reporting) also apply to authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions6 and registered account information service providers3 as if a reference to firm in these rules were a reference to these categories of payment service provider3.
2SUP 16.3.14 R (Failure to submit reports) also applies to payment service providers that are required to submit reports or assessments in accordance with this section and the Payment Services Regulations3 as if a reference to firm in this rule were a reference to the relevant category of payment service provider3.
(1) A firm may wish to operate its arrangements under SYSC 18.3.1R internally, within its group or through a third party. (2) Firms will have to consider how to manage any conflicts of interest.(3) If the firm uses another member of its group or a third party to operate its arrangements under SYSC 18.3.1R it will continue to be responsible for complying with that rule.
This rule applies to an EEA SMCR banking firm3 and an overseas SMCR banking firm5.32(1) A person subject to this rule (‘P’) 2must, in the manner described in (2), communicate to its UK-based employees that they may disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or the FCA and the methods for doing so. P 2must make clear that:(a) reporting to the PRA or to the FCA is not conditional on a report first being made using P’s 2internal arrangements; (b) it is possible to report using P’s 2internal
(1) This rule applies where an EEA SMCR banking firm3 or an overseas SMCR banking firm5 has:3(a) a branch in the United Kingdom; and(b) a group entity which is a UK SMCR banking firm3.(2) An EEA SMCR banking firm3 and an overseas SMCR banking firm5 must, in the manner described in (3), communicate to the UK-based employees of its UKbranch:3(a) the whistleblowing arrangements of the group entity that is a UK SMCR banking firm3; and(b) indicate that these arrangements may be used
(1) For a credit agreement there is no right to cancel under CONC 11.1.1 R, unless (2) or (3) applies, in respect of:(a) a regulated consumer credit agreement (within the meaning of that section) to which section 66A (right to withdraw) of the CCA applies;(b) a credit agreement under which a lender provides credit to a consumer and where the consumer's obligation to repay is secured by a legal mortgage on land;(c) a credit agreement cancelled under regulation 15(1) of the Consumer
(1) The firm must disclose to a consumer in good time before or, if that is not possible, immediately after the consumer is bound by a contract to which the right to cancel applies under CONC 11.1.1 R, and in a durable medium, the existence of the right to cancel, its duration and the conditions for exercising it including information on the amount which the consumer may be required to pay, the consequences of not exercising it and practical instructions for exercising it, indicating
(1) When a consumer exercises the right to cancel the consumer may only be required to pay, without any undue delay, for the service actually provided by the firm in accordance with the contract. The amount payable must not:(a) exceed an amount which is in proportion to the extent of the service already provided in comparison with the full coverage of the contract;(b) in any case be such that it could be construed as a penalty.[Note: article 7(1), (2) and (3) of the Distance Marketing
The debt management client money distribution rules seek, in the event of the failure of a CASS debt management firm or of an approved bank at which the CASS debt management firm holds client money, to protect client money and to facilitate the timely payment of sums to creditors or the timely return of client money to clients.
The methodologies which have been developed for calculating PRR charges have been based on existing instruments and assume instruments with standard characteristics. However, as a result of innovation and because there are instruments which, although based on a standard contract, contain structural features which would make the rules in the rest of this chapter inappropriate, flexible rules are required. The rules in this section about transactions for which no PRR treatment has
(1) If a firm has a position:(a) in a PRR item in non-standard form; or(b) that is part of a non-standard arrangement; or(c) that, taken together with other positions (whether or not they are subject to PRRcharges under BIPRU 7), gives rise to a non-standard market risk;the firm must notify the appropriate regulator of that fact and of details about the position, PRR item, arrangements and type of risk concerned.(2) Except as (1) provides to the contrary, (1) applies to a position
(1) In BIPRU 7.1.13R and, to the extent that that rule applies BIPRU 7.1.13R, BIPRU 7.1.15R, an "appropriate percentage" is:(a) 100%; or(b) a percentage which takes account of the characteristics of the position concerned and of discussions with the appropriate regulator or a predecessor regulator under the Banking Act 1987 or the Financial Services Act 1986.(2) Compliance with (1) may be relied on as tending to establish compliance with BIPRU 7.1.13R or, insofar as it incorporates
7Under sections 60A and 63F 7of the Act, in assessing whether a person is a fit and proper person to perform an FCA designated senior management function or an FCA certification function14, 7a firm16 must have particular regard to whether that person:7714(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.
7The key general rules relating to the criteria listed in FIT 1.2.1BG1410 include:(1) in the case of very senior employees, SYSC 4.2 (persons who effectively direct the business) and SYSC 4.3A.3R (management body);(2) for personnel14 of firms generally,10 the competent employees rule10; 14(3) in relation to retail activities, TC 2.1.1R, TC 2.1.5BR and14TC 2.1.12R (employees' competence); and14(4) for those who are employees of insurance firms, SYSC 3.1.6R.14
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FCA7 should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FCA7 may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person:777(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.7
A firm with only a limited permission to whom DISP 1.10.1R(1) and (2) do not apply is required to submit information to the FCA about the number of complaints it has received in relation to credit-related activities under the reporting requirements in SUP 16.12 (see, in particular, data item CCR007 in SUP 16.12.29CR). A firm with limited permission to whom DISP 1.10.1R (1) and (2) do not apply is also subject to the complaints data publication rules in DISP 1.10A.10618
For the purpose of inclusion in the public record maintained by the FCA, a firm must:10(1) provide the FCA, at the time of its authorisation, with details of a single contact point within the firm for complainants; and10(2) notify the
FCA
of any subsequent change in those details when convenient and, at the latest, in the firm's next report under the complaints reporting rules.10
(1) The following example illustrates BIPRU 7.2.18R and BIPRU 7.2.19R in conjunction with BIPRU 7.2.11R (the last rule determines the value of notional positions). A firm sells £1mn notional of a 3v6 FRA at 6%. This results in:(a) a short position in a zero-specific-risk security with a zero coupon, three month maturity, and a nominal amount of £1million; and(b) a long position in a zero-specific-risk security with a zero coupon, six month maturity, and nominal amount of £1,015,000
(1) Where included in the PRR calculation in BIPRU 7.2 (see the table in BIPRU 7.2.4R), options and warrants must be treated in accordance with this rule.(2) An option or warrant on a debt security, a basket of debt securities or a debt security index must be treated as a position in that debt security, basket or index.(3) An option on an interest rate must be treated as a position in a zero coupon zero-specific-risk security with a maturity equal to the sum of the time to expiry
(1) A firm must not net positions (including notional positions) unless those positions are in the same debt security. This rule sets out the circumstances in which debt securities may be treated as the same for these purposes.(2) Subject to (3) long and short positions are in the same debt security, and a debt security is the same as another if and only if:(a) they enjoy the same rights in all respects; and(b) are fungible with each other.(3) Long and short positions in different
Table: specific risk position risk adjustments
This table belongs to BIPRU 7.2.43R.
Issuer |
Residual maturity |
|
Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or which would receive a 0% risk weight under the standardised approach to credit risk. |
Any |
0% |
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 2 or 3 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or 2 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institution which would qualify for credit quality step 3 under BIPRU 3.4.34 R (Exposures to institutions: Credit assessment based method) or which would do so if it had an original effective maturity of three months or less. (D) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 1, 2 or 32 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (E) Other qualifying debt securities (see BIPRU 7.2.49R) 2 |
Zero to six months |
0.25% |
over 6 and up to and including 24 months |
1% |
|
Over 24 months |
1.6% |
|
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities or institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 4 or 5 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 4 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) Exposures for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is not available. 2 |
Any |
8% |
(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or United Kingdom5 regional governments or local authorities or institution which would qualify for credit quality step 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporate which would qualify for credit quality step 5 or 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk. (C) An instrument that shows a particular risk because of the insufficient solvency of the issuer of liquidity. This paragraph applies even if the instrument would otherwise qualify for a lower position risk adjustment under this table. |
Any |
12% |
Note: The question of what a corporate is and of what category a debt security falls into must be decided under the rules relating to the standardised approach to credit risk. |
||
1(1) This sourcebook3 applies to every firm that:113(a) carries on a home finance activity3 (subject to 31the business loan and loans to high net worth mortgage customers7 application provisions3); or3(b) communicates or approves a financial promotion of qualifying credit, of a home purchase plan,6of a home reversion plan3or of a regulated sale and rent back agreement.636(2) Where a firm has outsourced activities to a third party processor, any rule in MCOB which requires the
In relation to a regulated mortgage contract for a business purpose or with a high net worth mortgage customer7, if a firm has opted for the tailored route, it must adopt the following modifications to the sourcebook:333(1) 11substitute an alternative description of the facility provided under the regulated mortgage contract for 'mortgage' where that term is used in any disclosure;733337(2) substitute the term 'illustration' for ‘Key facts illustration’ when opting to use the
The disclosure rules in MCOB place particular emphasis on the description of borrowing. Where the regulated mortgage contract is for a business purpose or with a high net worth mortgage customer7 who is not a consumer under an MCD regulated mortgage contract8, a firm should reflect this emphasis in any disclosure by first describing any borrowing before addressing the other facilities provided under the regulated mortgage contract.
(1) 10By virtue of amendments to articles 60B, 60C and 61 of the Regulated Activities Order which came into force on 21 March 2016, certain regulated credit agreements became regulated mortgage contracts (but see the transitional provisions described in (3) below). The provisions of MCOB that apply to these regulated mortgage contracts include:(a) MCOB 7 (Disclosure at start of contract and after sale);(b) MCOB 12 (Charges); and(c) MCOB 13 (Arrears, payment shortfalls and repossessions: