Related provisions for BIPRU 1.2.19
141 - 160 of 271 items.
SC4 applies to senior conduct rules staff members in addition to rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R. Although, the rules have some overlap, they are different. Rule 3 normally relates to responses from individuals to requests from the regulator, whereas rule SC4 imposes a duty on a senior conduct rules staff member to disclose appropriately any information of which the appropriate regulator would reasonably expect, including making a disclosure in the absence of any request or enquiry from
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities.5 For an SMF manager those responsibilities will be set out in that person’sstatement of responsibilities.52(2) If it does, then they should ensure that, if it is otherwise appropriate to do so, it is disclosed to the appropriate
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
(1) Before using a non-standard method of internal client money reconciliation, a firm must:(a) establish and document in writing its reasons for concluding that the method of internal client money reconciliation it proposes to use will:(i) (for the normal approach to segregating client money) check whether the amount of client money recorded in the firm's records as being segregated in client bank accounts meets the firm's obligation to its clients under the client money rules
A firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if: (1) its internal records and accounts of client money are materially out of date, inaccurate or invalid so that the firm is no longer able to comply with the requirements in CASS 7.15.2 R, CASS 7.15.3 R or CASS 7.15.5 R (1);(2) it will be unable to, or materially fails to, pay any shortfall into a client bank account or withdraw any excess from a client bank account so that the firm is unable to comply with CASS 7.15.29 R
In relation to an applicant firm wishing to rely on liquidity support from a parent undertaking constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, the appropriate regulator will ordinarily expect to reach agreement with the authority that regulates that undertaking for liquidity purposes in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will notify the appropriate regulator of any material or persistent breaches by that undertaking of that authority's
(1) A firm must use Form E (SUP 10C Annex 7D6) where an approved person:6(a) is both permanently10 ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions; and6(b) needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA-designated senior management function;6within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:(a) an FCA controlled function that is a significant-influence function8;(b) an FCA-designated
A firm will therefore lose the benefit of its simplified ILAS waiver if it ceases to satisfy the conditions in BIPRU 12.6.6R to BIPRU 12.6.8R. Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), if a firm anticipates that it may breach those conditions, it should notify the appropriate regulator promptly.
If a firm intends to rely on the approach in BIPRU 7.4.22R(1)(b):(1) it must notify the appropriate regulator in writing at least 20 business days prior to the date the firm starts relying on it; and(2) the firm must, as part of the notification under (1), provide to the appropriate regulator the analysis of price movements on which it relies.
A firm may use the commodity extended maturity ladder approach to calculate the commodity PRR for a particular commodity provided the firm:(1) has a diversified commodities portfolio;(2) undertakes significant commodities business;(3) is not yet in a position to use the VaR model approach to calculate commodity PRR; and(4) at least twenty business days before the date the firm uses that approach notifies the appropriate regulator in writing of:(a) its intention to use the commodity
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator which method under BIPRU 8.7.13 R it applies for which consolidated requirement component and to which parts of the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group5 it is applying an aggregation approach and to which parts it is applying an accounting consolidation approach.
(1) A firm may only treat an exposure as exempt under BIPRU 3.2.25 R (Zero risk-weighting for intra-group exposures) as applied on a consolidated basis if the member of the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group5 that has the exposure:(a) is a BIPRU firm and that exposure is exempt under BIPRU 3.2.25 R as it applies to that BIPRU firm on a solo basis; or(b) meets the conditions in BIPRU 3.2.25 R (1)(d) (Condition relating to establishment in the UK) and that exposure would
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part 4A permission27 which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:27(a) make an application for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer of a person performing a controlled function22), or make an application for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application
(1) Subject to (1A), a17firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the forms specified on the online notification and application system21. 1417272727181814(1A) A firm wishing to make an application under SUP 6 which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method
(1) Remuneration Code staff comprises:(a) an employee of an IFPRU investment firm whose professional activities have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile, including any employee who is deemed to have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile in accordance with the Material Risk Takers Regulation7; or(b) subject to (2) and (3), an employee of an overseas firm in SYSC 19A1.1.1R(1)(d) (i.e., an overseas firm that would have been an IFPRU investment firm if it had been
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the FCA6 to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified prohibitions on guaranteed
A firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) its internal records and accounts of the safe custody assets held by the firm for clients are materially out of date, or materially inaccurate or invalid, so that the firm is no longer able to comply with the requirements in CASS 6.6.2 R to CASS 6.6.4 R; or(2) 5it is a firmacting as trustee or depositary of an AIF and has not complied with, or is materially unable to comply with, the requirements in CASS 6.6.2 R or in
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) and (where applicable) COLL 6.6.4BR (Specific duties of a depositary: oversight of the liquidity management of a FIIA),18 that the FCA would reasonably view as
(1) As part of its obligations under GENPRU 1.2.30 R (Processes, strategies and systems for risks) and GENPRU 1.2.36 R (Stress and scenario tests) a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the appropriate regulator if any
The following table provides an overview of this chapter:
Handbook reference |
Topic and specific application |
Application, approach and structure |
|
Authorisation and verification |
|
Operating requirements |
|
Financial resources requirements for consolidated tape providers |
|
Notification and information |
|
Supervisory regime |
|
Frequently Asked Questions |
|
Forms |
A primary
pooling event occurs:(1) on
the failure of the firm; or(2) on
the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may
be) of the Act; or(3) on
the coming into force of a requirement for
all client money held by the firm; or(4) when
the firm notifies, or is in
breach of its duty to notify, the FCA, in accordance with CASS 5.5.77 R1, that it is unable correctly to
identify and allocate in its records
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires,1 within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, temporarily1 suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is