Related provisions for SUP 18.3.5

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REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.76

3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for a RAP) auction platform,7 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products which it operates or plans to operate.76

635443

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks.

5

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5.

5

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached.

5

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for a RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status7.

63

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

5

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

5

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
APER 1.1A.4GRP
[deleted]641
SUP 16.18.3GRP
This section specifies the end dates for reporting periods for AIFMs and the reporting period for small AIFMs for the types of AIFM to whom this section applies. Although article 110 of the AIFMD level 2 regulations (Reporting to competent authorities) (as replicated in SUP 16.18.4UK5) applies certain reporting requirements directly to AIFMs, it does not specify the end dates for reporting periods for an AIFM and, for small AIFMs, it does not specify the reporting period. Therefore,
EG 19.35.17RP
1The DRS Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the DRS Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
EG 19.36.16RP
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
DISP App 3.1.2GRP
At step 1, the3 aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how the firm should:(1) assess a complaint in order to establish whether the firm's conduct of the sale failed to comply with the rules, or was otherwise in breach of the duty of care or any other requirement of the general law (taking into account relevant materials published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service and former schemes). In this appendix this is referred
COLL 11.6.2RRP
(1) The commencement of winding up of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must take place no sooner than 3 months after a notification is made to its unitholders and the FCA3 informing it3 of the binding decision to wind up the master UCITS.(2) Paragraph (1) is without prejudice to any provision of the insolvency legislation in force in the United Kingdom regarding the compulsory liquidation of AUTs, ACSs1 or ICVCs.[Note: article 60(4) last sentence of the UCITS Directive]
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
REC 2.9.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least five years4; and(2) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes4: (a)
DEPP 6.5A.3GRP
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
EG 4.7.1RP
2The FCA's standard practice is generally to use statutory powers to require the production of documents, the provision of information or the answering of questions in interview. This is for reasons of fairness, transparency and efficiency. It will sometimes be appropriate to depart from this standard practice, for example: (1) For suspects or possible suspects in criminal or market abuse investigations, the FCA may prefer to question that person on a voluntary basis, possibly
SUP 3.2.1GRP
This chapter sets out rules and guidance on the role auditors play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. In determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator has regard to whether the firm has appointed auditors with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm. Auditors act as a source of information for the appropriate
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 14, SYSC 18 to10SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or SYSC 23 to 9SYSC 28A12 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344378
DISP 1.1A.21GRP
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a MiFID complaint under DISP 1.1A.20R(2) include the following: (1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2) similarities with other complaints received by the respondent; (3) relevant guidance published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and (4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar
COBS 2.4.4RRP
(1) This rule applies if a firm (F1), in the course of performing MiFID or equivalent third country business, receives an instruction to provide3 an investment or ancillary service on behalf of a client (C) through another firm (F2), if F2 is:(a) a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm; or(b) an investment firm that is:(i) a firm5; and(ii) subject to equivalent relevant requirements.(2) F1 may rely upon:(a) any information about C transmitted to it by F2; and(b)
BIPRU 8.3.24GRP
[deleted]54444
COLL 2.1.5GRP
[deleted]41222222
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society5, a non-directive firm45or (in the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission3

54

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3

9

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A non-directive firm43

4

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3

5(2B)

(In the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R , and SUP 11.4.4 R

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21

944994494
LR 8.4.1RRP
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.4 G2 apply in relation to an application for admission of securities11 to premium listing65if an applicant does not have securities11 already admitted to premium listing ,68 the conditions in LR 6.1.1R(1), LR 6.1.1R(2), LR 21.2.5R(1), LR 21.2.5R(2), LR 21.6.13R(1) or LR 21.6.13R(2)11 do not apply and8, in connection with the application, the applicant is required to publish a document under article 1(4)(f) or (g) or (5)(e) or (f) of the Prospectus Regulation