Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
181 - 200 of 575 items.
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
1This table belongs to COLL 7.4.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.4)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an AUT or terminating a sub-fund under FCArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 251 of the Act. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.4.5 R (4)) |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Receive FCA approval |
N + one month On receipt of notice from the FCA |
Section 251 of the Act |
2 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4.3R |
3 |
Trustee to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4.4R(1) to (5) |
4 |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4.5R(5) |
|
5 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4.4R(6) |
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in (2) and not otherwise:1(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing), COLL 6.6.20R to COLL 6.6.24G (Assessment of value)4 and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund;1(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel1units, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4.4 R (1) or (2);11(c) the manager
1The FCA has certain functions in relation to what are described as “registrant-only” mutual societies including registered societies or registered friendly societies.2 These societies are not regulated or supervised under the Act. Instead, they are subject to the provisions of2 FSA74, FSA92, CCBSA14 and CCBSA(NI)693 which require them to register with the FCA and fulfil certain other obligations, such as the requirement to submit annual returns.
2
1The FCA's enforcement activities in respect of registrant-only societies focus on prosecuting societies that fail to submit annual returns. As registrant-only societies are not subject to the rules imposed by the Act and by the FCA
Handbook, the requirement that they submit annual returns provides an important check that the interests and investments of members, potential members, creditors and other interested parties are being safeguarded. The power to prosecute
1The decision whether to initiate criminal and other proceedings under these Acts will be taken in accordance with the procedure described in EG 12.1.7. Under these Acts,3 a society may appeal certain decisions of the FCA relating to the refusal, cancellation or suspension of a society’s registration to the High Court or, in Scotland, the Court of Session. 3Distinguishing features of the procedure for giving statutory notices under the FSA92, including available rights of reference
36The RAO and the UK auctioning regulations together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emission allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of a MiFID investment firm (other than a collective portfolio management investment firm) or a third country investment firm (other than one which would be a collective portfolio management investment firm if its head office were in the United Kingdom)38.(1A) The first category also
16Most collective investment schemes will also be either a UCITS or an AIF (although not all AIFs are collective investment schemes). As a result, there is a potential overlap between the activity of establishing, operating and winding up a collective investment scheme and the activities of managing a UK UCITS34 and managing an AIF. However, there are exclusions in the RAO which considerably reduce the overlap (see PERG 2.8.10G (2) and PERG 16.5).
16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) be a UCITS scheme or25 satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive as implemented in the EEA25; or(b) be a recognised scheme1825
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 27218of the Act.18(2) A 25 scheme18 which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set out in COLL 5.2.13R (1).1813131818(3) 8In determining whether a scheme (other than a UCITS)18 meets the requirements of COLL 5.2.13AR25 for the purposes ofCOLL 5.2.13R (1),18 the authorised fund manager should consider the following factors before deciding that the scheme provides
(1) 21Authorised fund managers of UCITS schemes 25 should bear in mind that where a UCITS scheme25 employs particular investment strategies such as those in (2)21, COBS 4.13.2R (Marketing communications relating to UCITS schemes25) and COBS 4.13.3R (Marketing communications relating to a feeder UCITS) contain additional disclosure requirements in relation to marketing communications that concern those investment strategies.(2) 21Examples of investment strategies that require these
(1) The effect of section 59 of the Act is that if a person is to perform certain functions (which are known as controlled functions) for a credit union, the credit union should first apply for approval to:2(a) the FCA (if the controlled function is specified by the FCA in its rules); or2(b) the PRA (if the controlled function is specified by the PRA in its rules).2(2) The firm should not allow the person to perform that function until the firm receives the approval.2(3) A person
The CUA79 and CU(NI)O85 enable certain2 societies in Great Britain and Northern Ireland to be registered under CCBSA14 and CU(NI)O85 respectively. CUA79 and CU(NI)O85 also make2 provisions in respect of these societies. They give2 the FCA certain powers in addition to the powers that it has under the Act in respect of those credit unions which are authorised persons. The FCA's powers under CUA79, CCBSA14 and CU(NI)O852 include the power to:1(1) require the production of books,
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA:9 residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FCA3 with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FCA's3rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400
(1) The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as RIEs under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) and (as RAPs) under the RAP regulations7.65(2) The recognition requirements and guidance in REC 2 relate primarily to UK RIEs which are recognised, or applying to be recognised, to operate a regulated market in the United Kingdom.5(3) While some recognition requirements in REC 2 apply
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID/MiFIR requirements7.26RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the RAP regulations, under the
The nature of many bodies corporate means that they will, in most if not all circumstances, come within the definition of collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3) of the Act (Collective investment schemes). The property concerned will generally be managed as a whole under the control of the directors of the body corporate or some other person for the purpose of running its business. The idea underlying the investment is that the investors will participate in or receive
However, there are a number of exclusions that apply to prevent certain arrangements from being a collective investment scheme. These are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). The exclusion in paragraph 21 of the Schedule to that Order is of particular significance for bodies corporate. It excludes from being a collective investment
8As a result of section 404B of the Act, if the subject matter of a complaint falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, the Ombudsman will determine the complaint by reference to what, in the opinion of the Ombudsman, the redress determination under the consumer redress scheme should be or should have been, unless the complainant and the respondent agree that the complaint should not be dealt with in accordance with the consumer
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to:3(a) DTR 7.16; and3(b) articles 11(1), 11(2) and 16(5) of the Audit Regulation;3[Note: article 39(3)(a)3 of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement available to
the public setting out the reasons for which it considers it is not
UKLR 6.6.18R, UKLR 13.3.24R, UKLR 14.3.21R, UKLR 15.3.1R(3), UKLR 16.3.20R and UKLR 22.2.21R10 extend
the application of DTR 7.2 (Corporate governance statements) for certain overseas
companies which have securities admitted
to the official list maintained
by the FCA in accordance with section 74 (The official
list) of the Act.2
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
1Where the FCA believes that a company or partnership to which sections 359(1) and 367(1) of the Act applies is, or is likely to become, unable to pay its debts, the FCA will consider whether it is appropriate to seek an administration order or a compulsory winding up order from the court. The FCA's approach will be in two stages: the first is to consider whether it is appropriate to seek any insolvency order; the second is to consider which insolvency order will meet, or is likely
1In determining whether it is appropriate to seek an insolvency order on this basis, the FCA will consider the facts of each case including, where relevant: (1) whether the company or partnership has taken or is taking steps to deal with its insolvency, including petitioning for its own administration, placing itself in voluntary winding up or proposing to enter into a company voluntary arrangement, and the effectiveness of those steps; (2) whether any consumer or other creditor
This guidance is issued under section 139A of Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FCA12 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions15; 15158(2) to implement certain
(1) 6The effect of section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) is that in the course of business, an unauthorised person must not communicate an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity or to engage in claims management activity3 unless either the content of the communication is approved for the purposes of section 21 by an authorised person or it is exempt.(2) 6By virtue of section 21(2A) of the Act7 an authorised person is unable to approve the
Another consequence of a breach of section 21 of the Act is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see section 30 of the Act (Enforceability of agreements resulting from unlawful communications)). This applies to agreements entered into by a person as a customer as a consequence of a communication made in breach of section 21.