Related provisions for EG 19.34.20

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CASS 11.11.11GRP
In seeking to comply with its obligation to carry out checks on its internal records and accounts, a CASS small debt management firm may choose to follow the steps specifically required of CASS large debt management firms in undertaking a CASS large debt management firm internal client money reconciliation and CASS large debt management firm external client money reconciliation. A CASS small debt management firm which follows that procedure is likely to be regarded by the FCA
CASS 11.11.27GRP
The FCA expects a CASS large debt management firm which carries out transactions for its clients on a daily basis to carry out a CASS large debt management firm external client money reconciliation on a daily basis.
CASS 11.11.30RRP
A CASS debt management firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) its internal records and accounts of client money are materially out of date or materially inaccurate so that the firm is no longer able to comply with the requirements in CASS 11.11.1 R to CASS 11.11.4 R; or(2) it becomes aware that, at any time in the preceding 12 months, the amount of client money segregated in its client bank accounts materially differed from the total aggregate amount of client
CASS 11.11.31RRP
A CASS large debt management firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) after having carried out a CASS large debt management firm internal client money reconciliation in accordance with CASS 11.11.13 R it will be unable to, or materially fails to, pay any shortfall into (or withdraw any excess from) a client bank account so that the firm is unable to comply with CASS 11.11.23 R;(2) after having carried out a CASS large debt management firm external client money
SUP 16.11.2GRP
(1) The purpose of this section2 is to set out the requirements for firms in the retail mortgage, investment, consumer credit lending8 and pure protection contract markets specified in SUP 16.11.1 R to report individual product sales data, to report individual performance data on regulated mortgage contracts and relevant regulated credit agreements, and to report historic back-book data16 to the FCA17. In the case of firms in the sale and rent back market, there is a requirement
SUP 16.11.4GRP
(1) A firm may submit a sales 7data report more frequently than required by SUP 16.11.3 R7if it wishes.7(2) If it is easier and more practical for a firm to submit additional data relating to products other than those specified in SUP 16.11.5 R, it may submit that additional data to the FCA17 in a data report.17
SUP 16.11.9RRP
A firm must provide a 7data report to the FCA17 electronically in a standard format provided by the FCA17.71717
SUP 16.11.10GRP
A data report will have been provided to the FCA17 in accordance with SUP 16.11.9 R only if all mandatory data reporting fields (as set out in SUP 16 Annex 21R) have been completed correctly and the report has been accepted by the relevant FCA17 reporting system.1717
SUP 16.11.11RRP
(1) A firm may appoint another person to provide a 7data report on the firm's behalf if the firm has informed the FCA17 of that appointment in writing.717(2) Where (1) applies, the firm must ensure that the data report complies with the requirements of SUP 16.11 and identifies the originator of the transaction.
EG 5.5.2RP
2Normally, where the outcome is potentially a financial penalty, suspension, restriction, condition or disciplinary prohibition,3 the FCA will send a letter at an early point in the enforcement process to the subject of the investigation. This is what the FCA refers to as a stage 1 letter. The FCA will aim to give 28 days’ notice of the beginning of stage 1 to allow the parties involved to make administrative arrangements, e.g. ensuring that key staff can be available to participate
EG 5.5.4RP
2There is no set form for a stage 1 letter though it will always explain the nature of the misconduct, the FCA's view on the sanction3, and the period within which the FCA expects any settlement discussions to be concluded. In some cases, a draft statutory notice setting out the alleged rule breaches and the proposed sanction3 may form part of the letter, to convey the substance of the case team’s concerns and reasons for arriving at a particular level of sanction3. The FCA will
EG 5.5.5RP
2The timing of the stage 1 letter will vary from case to case. Sufficient investigative work must have taken place for the FCA to be able to satisfy itself that the settlement is the right regulatory outcome. In many cases, the FCA can send out the stage 1 letter substantially before the person concerned is provided with the FCA's preliminary investigation report (see paragraphs 4.13.1 to 4.13.4). The latest point the FCA will send a stage 1 letter is when the person is provided
EG 5.5.6RP
2The FCA considers that 28 days following a stage 1 letter will normally be the ‘reasonable opportunity to reach agreement as to the amount of penalty’ before the expiry of stage 1 contemplated by DEPP 6.7.3G3. Extensions to this period will be granted in exceptional circumstances only, and factors that will be taken into account in considering an application will include the extent to which factors outside the firm’s or individual’s control will have a material impact on their
CREDS 9.2.1RRP
A credit union must provide the FCA, once a year, with a report in the format set out in CREDS 9 Annex 1 R (Credit Union complaints return) which contains (for the relevant reporting period) information about:(1) the total number of complaints received by the credit union;(2) (for the product/service groupings within section 5)3 the number of complaints closed by the credit union:(a) within eight weeks of receipt; and(b) more than eight weeks after receipt;(2A) (for other lending
CREDS 9.2.7RRP
For the purposes of CREDS 9.2.1 R:(1) the relevant reporting period is from 1 April to 31 March each year; and(2) reports are to be submitted to the FCA within one month of the end of the relevant reporting period.[Note: a transitional provision applies to this rule: see CREDS TP 1.16.]1
CREDS 9.2.10RRP
A report under this section must be given or addressed, and delivered, in the way set out in SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.16 G (General provisions on reporting), except that, instead of the credit union's usual supervisory contact, the report must be given to or addressed for the attention of the Central Reporting team at the FCA.22
CREDS 9.2.12ARRP
5SUP 16.10.4R requires credit unions to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes, including any change to the complaints contact or complaints officer, to the FCA.
EG 8.3.1RP
1The FCA may impose, under sections 55J or 55L of the Act,3 a variation of permission3 or a requirement3 so that it takes effect immediately or on a specified date if it reasonably considers it necessary for the variation or requirement to take effect immediately (or on the date specified), having regard to the ground on which it is exercising its own-initiative powers.
EG 8.3.2RP
1The FCA will consider exercising its own-initiative power2where: (1) the information available to it indicates serious concerns about the firm or its business that need to be addressed immediately; and (2) circumstances indicate that it is appropriate to use statutory powers immediately to require and/or prohibit certain actions by the firm in order to ensure the firm addresses these concerns.
EG 8.3.3RP
1It is not possible to provide an exhaustive list of the situations that will give rise to such serious concerns, but they are likely to include one or more of the following characteristics: (1) information indicating significant loss, risk of loss or other adverse effects for consumers, where action is necessary to protect their interests; (2) information indicating that a firm's conduct has put it at risk of being used for the purposes of financial crime, or of being otherwise
EG 8.3.4RP
1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case when it decides whether a2 variation of Part 4A permission under section 55J of the Act3 or an imposition of a requirement under section 55L of the Act3 is appropriate. The following is a non-exhaustive list of factors the FCA may consider. (1) The extent of any loss, or risk of loss, or other adverse effect on consumers. The more serious the loss or potential loss or other adverse effect, the more likely it is that the
CASS 11.2.4RRP
Once every calendar year, a CASS debt management firm must notify the FCA, in writing, of the information in (1), (2) or (3), as applicable, and the information in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):(1) if it held client money in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later than the fifteenth business day of January; or (2) if it did not hold
CASS 11.2.7RRP
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 11.2.3 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied, a CASS debt management firm that would otherwise be classified as a CASS small debt management firm under the limits provided for in CASS 11.2.3 R may elect to be treated as a CASS large debt management firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case: (a) the election is notified to the FCA in writing;(b) the notification in accordance with (a) is made at least one week before
CASS 11.2.8RRP
A firm's 'CASS debt management firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (1) or CASS 11.2.4 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 11.2.7 R and provided the conditions in CASS 11.2.7 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification made under
CASS 11.2.9GRP
Any written notification made to the FCA under this chapter should be marked for the attention of: "Debt Management Client Assets Firm Classification".
FEES 13.1.4GRP
Section 333T of the Act (Funding of action against illegal money lending) requires the Treasury to notify the FCA of the amount of the Treasury’s illegal money lending costs. The FCA must make rules requiring authorised persons, or any specified class of authorised person, to pay to the FCA the specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way, with a view to recovering the amounts notified to it by the Treasury.
FEES 13.1.6GRP
The amounts to be paid under the rules may include a component to recover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the payments.
FEES 13.1.7GRP
The FCA must pay to the Treasury the amounts that it receives under the IML levy apart from amounts in respect of its collection costs (which it may keep).
DEPP 6.5B.1GRP
2The FCA3 will seek to deprive an individual of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA3 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit. Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breaching FCA3rules or other requirements of the regulatory system and the individual’s breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA3
DEPP 6.5B.2GRP
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
DEPP 6.5B.3GRP
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
DEPP 6.5B.4GRP
(1) If the FCA3 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FCA3 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA3 may do this include:333(a) where the FCA3 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;3(b) where previous FCA3 action in respect of similar breaches
DEPP 6.5B.5GRP
The FCA3 and the individual on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FCA3 and the individual concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step
FEES 12.2.2RRP
(1) The FCA will raise the FOS ADR levy annually in arrears. (2) The FCA will invoice FOS Ltd in April for the FOS ADR levy relating to the previous fee year.(3) FOS Ltd must pay the FOS ADR levy within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
FEES 12.2.3RRP
The FOS ADR levy is calculated as follows:(1) Determine the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA, in performing functions under the ADR Regulations.(2) Using the table at FEES 3 Annex 9R(11), determine the relevant pay grades of those employed by the FCA to perform the functions under the ADR Regulations.(3) Next, multiply the applicable rate in the table at FEES 3 Annex 9R(11) by the number of hours or part hours obtained under (1).(4) Then add any fees and disbursements
FEES 12.2.4GRP
(1) The hourly rates chargeable for FCA employees are set out in the table at FEES 3 Annex 9R(11) for Special Project Fee for Restructuring.(2) FCA board members are treated as “Any other person employed by the FCA” for this purpose.
CASS 12.2.2GRP
The FCA understands that in complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order, a firm is representing that it will not:(1) make use of the opt-out arrangements in CASS 7.10.9G2 to CASS 7.10.13G2; or(2) conduct business to which the client money rules do not apply because of the exemption for CRD credit institutions and approved banks in CASS 7.10.16R2 to CASS 7.10.24R2; or(3) enter into any TTCA under CASS 7.113;2in relation to business conducted pursuant to the Part
CASS 12.2.3GRP
For firms with exemptive relief under the Part 30 exemption order, the CFTC has issued certain no-action letters which, on the FCA's understanding, would allow such firms to use an LME bond arrangement as an alternative to complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order. Under an LME bond arrangement, a firm may arrange for a binding letter of credit to be issued to cover the 'secured amount' (as defined by section 30.7 of the General Regulations under the US Commodity
CASS 12.2.5RRP
A firm must notify the FCA immediately if it arranges the issue of a letter of credit for a specified client who is the named beneficiary under an LME bond arrangement.
SYSC 12.1.1RRP
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) an investment firm that is not a designated investment firm18;15(b) [deleted]88(c) an insurer;(ca) a UK ISPV;16(d) [deleted]18(e) a UK parent entity of an investment firm group that is subject to prudential consolidation under MIFIDPRU 2.5 or to the group capital test under MIFIDPRU 2.6;
SYSC 12.1.10AGRP
12SYSC 1.1A.2 G sets out the general principle that the FCA will apply provisions to the extent of its powers and regulatory responsibilities. SYSC 12.1.10 R will, therefore, have limited application to a Solvency II firm.
SYSC 12.1.18GRP
Assessment of the adequacy of a group's systems and controls required by this section will form part of the FCA’s14 risk management process.
SYSC 12.1.21GRP
SYSC 12.1.8R (1) deals with the systems and controls that a firm should have in respect of the exposure it has to the rest of the group. On the other hand, the purpose of SYSC 12.1.8R (2) and the rules in this section that amplify it is to require groups to have adequate systems and controls. However a group is not a single legal entity on which obligations can be imposed. Therefore the obligations have to be placed on individual firms. The purpose of imposing the obligations
SYSC 12.1.22GRP
If both a firm and its parent undertaking are subject to SYSC 12.1.8R (2), the FCA14 would not expect systems and controls to be duplicated. In this case, the firm should assess whether and to what extent it can rely on its parent's group risk systems and controls.
LR 14.3.2RRP
(1) A company2 must comply with LR 14.2.2 R at all times.2(2) A company2 that no longer complies with LR 14.2.2 R must notify the FCA as soon as possible of its non-compliance.2
LR 14.3.2AGRP
[deleted]12
LR 14.3.6RRP
A company2 must forward to the FCA, for publication, by uploading to the national storage mechanism, a copy13 of:2(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.
LR 14.3.7RRP
(1) A company2 must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FCA under LR 14.3.6 R unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.2(2) A notification made under (1) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtained.2
LR 14.3.8RRP
A company2 must ensure that the FCA is provided with up to date contact details of appropriate persons nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FCA in relation to the company's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure requirements6 and transparency rules, as applicable.22
APER 4.1.2GRP
4In the opinion of the FCA3, conduct of the type described in APER 4.1.3G, APER 4.1.5G, APER 4.1.6G, APER 4.1.8G, APER 4.1.10G, APER 4.1.12G, APER 4.1.13G, APER 4.1.14G or APER 4.1.15G3 does not comply with Statement of Principle 1.
APER 4.1.3GRP
3Deliberately misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission: (1) a client; or(2) his APER employer5 (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his APER employer5 under SUP 4 (Actuaries) 1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;falls within APER 4.1.2G.
APER 4.1.4GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3G includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading a client about the risks of an investment;(3) misleading a client about the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading a client about the likely performance of investment products by providing inappropriate projections of future investment returns;(5) misleading a client by informing him that products require only a single
APER 4.1.6GRP
3Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his APER employer5 (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his APER employer5 under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2G.
FINMAR 2.6.1GRP
Pursuant to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Short Selling) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/2554), the FCA will direct how notifications to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption shall be made. Such directions will be published on the FCA website and listed in FINMAR 2 Annex 1 G.
FINMAR 2.6.2GRP
(1) If the FCA considers that a natural or legal person ('P') who has notified the FCA of his intention to use either the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption does not satisfy the criteria to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption, the FCA will send a letter to P setting out the reasons why it is minded to prohibit P from using the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption.(2) P will be given
FINMAR 2.6.3GRP
If P is not satisfied with the FCA's decision to prohibit P's use of the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption, P may seek a review of the decision. This will be conducted by a group of at least three senior FCA staff. None of the group conducting the review will have been connected with the earlier decision taken in respect of P's use of the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption. The review may take place after the expiry
REC 4.1.2GRP
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) 4or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations5 to give directions
REC 4.1.3GRP
The FCA's3 general approach to supervision is intended to ensure that:3(1) the FCA3 has sufficient assurance that recognised bodies continue at all times to satisfy the recognised body requirements; and2132(2) the FCA's3 supervisory resources are allocated, and supervisory effort is applied, in ways which reflect the actual risks to the regulatory objectives. 3
REC 4.1.4GRP
In applying these principles of risk based supervision to the supervision of recognised bodies, the FCA3 has had particular regard to the special position of recognised bodies under the Act as well as to its general duties set out in section 2 of the Act (The FCA's 3general duties).33
23Firms proposing to offer arrangements involving some form of minimum underpinning or 'guarantee' should discuss their proposals with the FCA and1 HM Revenue and Customs1 at the earliest possible opportunity (see DISP App 1.5.8 G). The FCA will need to be satisfied that these proposals provide complainants with redress which is at least commensurate with the standard approaches contained in this appendix.
23One of the reasons for introducing the guidance in this appendix is to seek a reduction in the number of complaints which are referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service. If a firm writes to the complainant proposing terms for settlement which are in accordance with this appendix, the letter may include a statement that the calculation of loss and redress accords with the FCAguidance, but should not imply that this extends to the assessment of whether or not the complaint should
23A statement under DISP App 1.5.11 G should not give the impression that the proposed terms of settlement have been expressly endorsed by either the FCA or the Financial Ombudsman Service.
23'Relevant benefits' are those benefits that fall outside what is required in order that policyholders' reasonable expectations at that point of sale can be fulfilled. (The phrase 'policyholders' reasonable expectations' has technically been superseded. However, the concept now resides within the obligations imposed upon firms by FCA Principle 6 ('...a firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly....') Additionally, most of these benefits would
DTR 6.2.2RRP
An issuer or person that discloses regulated information must, at the same time, file that information with the FCA. [Note: article 19(1) of the TD]
DTR 6.2.2ARRP
3Where an issuer or person is required to file regulated information under DTR 6.2.2R, the issuer or person must, at the same time, notify the following to the FCA: (1) the legal entity identifier (LEI) of the issuer concerned; and(2) the classifications relevant to the regulated information using the classes and sub-classes in DTR 6 Annex 1R.
DTR 6.2.2BRRP
3If more than one classification is relevant to the regulated information, the issuer or person must notify all relevant classes and sub-classes to the FCA.
DTR 6.2.9GRP
[deleted]4
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

An exchange5 operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement Chapter 1 of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive—5

3

(i)

as they have effect on 1 December 20216, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act; and5

(ii)

as amended from time to time, in all other cases;5

(b)

any EU regulation originally made under Chapter 1 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is retained direct EU legislation, or any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under those provisions on or after IP completion day;5

3

which are applicable to a market operator35operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity5;

(b)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits.5

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating an SME growth market5 (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph as they have effect on IP completion day5.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading5.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under—5

(a)

section 11.2A of the Conduct of Business sourcebook;5

(b)

Articles 64 to 66 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 of 25 April 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards organisational requirements and operating conditions for investment firms and defined terms for the purposes of that Directive;5

(c)

[deleted]6

5

(d)

[deleted]6

5

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as they have effect on 1 December 20216 as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

5

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(21) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.

REC 2.16A.1AGRP
3In determining whether there are satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on its multilateral trading facility, the FCA may have regard to:(1) (in relation to transactions in derivatives which are to be cleared pursuant to article 4 of EMIR or otherwise agreed by the relevant transacting parties to be cleared) the UK recognised body’s ability to demonstrate that its multilateral trading facility
REC 2.16A.1CRRP
3In paragraphs 9H(1) and (2) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations where the UK RIE must provide information in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, such information must be provided to the FCA in writing and delivered by any one of the methods set out in REC 3.2.3R.
REC 2.16A.1DRRP
4For the purposes of complying with the requirement set out in paragraph 9E of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirement Regulations (SME Growth Markets), the rules set out by the FCA in MAR 5.10 (Operation of an SME growth market) apply to a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility as an SME growth market, as though it was an investment firm. [Note: article 33 of MiFID]
REC 2.16A.2GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility (including an SME growth market) or organised trading facility)3 complies with this chapter3, the FCA will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements. A UK RIE operating such facilities should also have regard to the guidance set out in MAR 5 (Multilateral trading facilities (MTFs)) and MAR 5A (Organised trading facilities (OTFs))3. 22
FEES 5.3.1GRP
Each financial year, the FCA and FOS Ltd will consult on the amount of the annual budget19of the Financial Ombudsman Service which is to be raised by the general levy. 19
FEES 5.3.3GRP
The FCA will determine, following consultation, the amount to be raised from each industry block. This will be based on the budgeted costs and numbers of Financial Ombudsman Service staff required to deal with the volume of complaints which the Financial Ombudsman Service expects to receive about the firms in each industry block. 8
FEES 5.3.5GRP
The FCA will specify a minimum levy for firms in each industry block.
FEES 5.3.6RRP
A firm must pay to the FCA a general levy towards the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
REC 3.13.1GRP
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FCA2to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as permitted 1under Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations or, in relation to a RAP, under regulation 13 of the RAP regulations. See REC 2.2 and REC 2A.25).214141(2) The FCA2does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which
REC 3.13.2RRP
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FCA2notice of that event, and:2(1) inform the FCA2of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;2(2) inform the FCA2of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements or (for a RAP) RAP recognition requirements54following that delegation;21(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing
REC 3.13.3RRP
A UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA2notice, where it makes an offer or agrees to undertake any relevant function of another UK recognised body.2