Related provisions for LR 11.1.1B
41 - 60 of 1029 items.
1The Referral Fees Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of the rules against referral fees contained in sections 56 to 60 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (the LASPO Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Referral Fees Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Referral Fees Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Referral Fees Regulations is to use powers
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3. However, the FCA does not have the power to suspend an authorised person’spermission under the Referral Fees Regulations.
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
If:7(1) a firm is applying for approval for someone to perform a controlled function under this chapter; and 7(2) that person is also ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or a PRA controlled function in relation to the same firm or in relation to a firm in the same group;7the firm should generally use Form E. Further details can be found in SUP 10A.14.4D.75555
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by the appointed representative of one principal7, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by the appointed representative of a new principal7, the new principal7 will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled function by that person. This
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C (SUP 10C Annex 5R)5 no later than ten4 business days after an FCA-approved person permanently8 ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function in relation to7 the same firm or to a firm in the same7group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm or the appointed representative7 has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
A firm can submit Form C or Form E 6to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which they perform4 an FCA controlled function, they4 will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10C Annex 3D7), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R5). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
3The power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations to impose a civil penalty or publish a statement adds to the FCA's other supervisory powers in relation to RAPs (see REC 4) and its power to impose penalties on a RAP under the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will use this power under the RAP Regulations where it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.2.1G. In deciding between a civil penalty or a public statement, the FCA will also
3The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed officers to carry out an investigation under either or both the RAP Regulations or the Money Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases.
3The FCA will also have regard to whether the person followed any of the FCA’s guidance and will not take action under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations where there are reasonable grounds for it to be satisfied that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the requirement was complied with.
3When the FCA proposes or decides to take action against a RAP in exercise of its power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, it must give the RAP a warning notice or a decision notice respectively. Those notices must state the amount of the penalty or set out the terms of the statement, as applicable. On receiving a warning notice, the RAP has a right to make representations on the FCA’s proposed decision.
3Where the FCA is proposing or deciding to publish a statement censuring a RAP or impose a penalty on the RAP under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, the FCA’s decision maker will be the RDC. This is to ensure that the FCA’s power to censure or impose a penalty on a RAP has the same layer of separation in the decision-making process, and is exercised consistently with, similar penalty and censure powers of the FCA under other legislation. The RDC will make its decisions following
A firm (other than the Society12) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.888515
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation to 9 fees payable to the FCA6 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where applicable) unless FEES 4.4.2AR applies9.15151527
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA6 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it 6 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative)).14141414141414
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FCA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FCA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FCA objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
The FCA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FCA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FCA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
Other things being equal, the FCA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FCA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FCA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FCA is unlikely
The FCA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FCA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FCA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FCA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FCA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the FCA's5 regulatory tools. The tool may be used:66(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks; (2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing; and (4)
The decision by the FCA5 to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act5 (Reports by skilled persons) 6will normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation,4 expert advice or recommendations or by a decision to seek assurance in relation to a regulatory return4. It may4 be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development relating or relevant
6The decision by the FCA5 to require the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) will be prompted where the FCA5 considers there has been a breach of a requirement by a firm to collect, and keep up to date, information of a description specified in the FCA's5rules.
When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, the FCA5 will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:66(1) circumstances relating to the firm;(2) alternative tools available, including other statutory powers;(3)
The FCA5 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:66(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FCA5 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;66(4) objectivity: whether the FCA5 has confidence in the firm's
The FCA5 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:66(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by staff5 of the FCA5 or a request for information on an informal basis); 66(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators to carry out general
The FCA5 will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:66(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;66(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent proceedings;
The FCA5 will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:66(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FCA's5 information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Power to require information), 167 (Appointment of investigator
In accordance with its general policy the FCA5 will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:66(1) if the FCA5 uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), either 6the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person, or the FCA5 will appoint, and will require under FEES 3.2.7
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) 6alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FCA5 will take into account relevant factors, including:66(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business
The FCA5 will have regard to FCA5-related considerations including:6666(1) FCA5 expertise: whether the FCA5 has the necessary expertise; and6666(2) FCA5 resources: whether the resources required to produce a report or to make enquiries or to appoint a skilled person itself6 are available within the FCA5, or whether the exercise will be the best use of the FCA's5 resources at the time.666666
A full credit institution to which regulation 105 of the Payment Services Regulations applies must notify the FCA if it refuses a request for access to payment account services from:(1) a person falling within paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) (excluding (1)(d)) of the Glossary definition of payment service provider; or(2) an applicant for authorisation or registration as such a payment service provider.
Unless the FCA directs otherwise, a notification required by regulation 105(3) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.3D must be submitted by the full credit institution to the FCA: (1) in the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 9D;
(2) by electronic means made available by the FCA; and(3) at the same time as it informs the person referred to in SUP 15.14.3D(1) or (2) of its refusal.
The direction in SUP 15.14.6D will not apply if the FCA gives a different direction to a specific credit institution, in the light of the particular circumstances surrounding a refusal of access to payment account services, about how to notify the FCA. The FCA is likely to be minded to do so where a credit institution decides to withdraw access to a large number of persons falling within paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) (excluding (1)(d)) of the Glossary definition of payment service
Credit institutions are reminded of the general notification requirements in SUP 15.3, including the obligation to notify the FCA as soon as they become aware of any matter (including a matter which may occur in the foreseeable future) which could affect their ability to continue to provide adequate services to their customers and which could result in serious detriment to a customer of the credit institution (SUP 15.3.1R(3)).
A notification required by regulation 71(8)(c) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.10D must be submitted by the account servicing payment service provider to the FCA: (1) in the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 10(2) by electronic means made available by the FCA; and (3) immediately after the first occasion on which it denies the account information service provider or the payment initiation service provider in question access to a payment account.
Where an account servicing payment service provider has already submitted a notification in accordance with regulation 71(8)(c) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.10D and continues to deny access to a payment account, it is not required to notify the FCA of a consecutive denial of access that happens after the original notification was sent if it: (1) is in respect of the same account information service provider or payment initiation service provider; and(2) arises
An account servicing payment service provider that has previously submitted a notification in accordance with regulation 71(8)(c) of the Payment Services Regulations and SUP 15.14.10D must notify the FCA if it subsequently restores access to the payment account for the account information service provider or payment initiation service provider that was the subject of the original notification, unless it indicated in the first notification that it intended to immediately restore
A notification required under SUP 15.14.15D must be submitted by the account servicing payment service provider to the FCA:(1) in the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 10; (2) by electronic means made available by the FCA; and (3) immediately after it restores access to the payment account(s) for the account information service provider or payment initiation service provider.
Regulation 99(1) of the Payment Services Regulations provides that, if a payment service provider becomes aware of a major operational or security incident, the payment service provider must, without undue delay, notify the FCA. The purpose of this section is to direct the form and manner in which such notifications must made and the information they must contain, in exercise of the power in regulation 100(2) of the Payment Services Regulations.
The EBA has issued Guidelines on incident reporting under the Payment Services Directive that specify the criteria a payment service provider should use to assess whether an operational or security incident is major and needs to be reported to the FCA. These Guidelines also specify the format for the notification and the procedures the payment service provider should follow.
In particular, a notification required by regulation 99(1) of the Payment Services Regulations must be submitted by the payment service provider to the FCA:(1) within the timescales and at the frequencies specified in the EBA’s Guidelines on incident reporting under the Payment Services Directive (EBA/GL/2017/10)3;(2) in writing on the form specified in SUP 15 Annex 11D; and(3) by such electronic means as the FCA may specify.
Where the electronic means of submission of notifications is known not to be available or operated at the time the incident is first detected, the notification should be sent to the FCA as soon as the electronic means of submission becomes available and operational again. Unless the FCA has informed a specific payment service provider that electronic means of submission are also available to it and operated at other times, the electronic means of submission are available and operated
Payment service providers are reminded that regulation 142 of the Payment Services Regulations (Misleading the FCA or the Payment Systems Regulator) makes it an offence for a person to knowingly or recklessly provide the FCA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the directions given in this section or any other requirement imposed by or under the Payment Services Regulations.
For the purpose of LR 5.6.4R (2), the FCA considers that the following factors are indicators of a fundamental change:(1) the extent to which the transaction will change the strategic direction or nature of its business; or(2) whether its business will be part of a different industry sector following the completion of the transaction; or(3) whether its business will deal with fundamentally different suppliers and end users.
A shell company6, or in the case of a shell company6with a premium listing, its sponsor, must contact the FCA as early as possible:(1) before announcing a reverse takeover which has been agreed or is in contemplation, to discuss whether a suspension of listing is appropriate; or (2) where details of the reverse takeover have leaked, to request a suspension.
Examples of where the FCA will consider that a reverse takeover is in contemplation include situations where:(1) the shell company6 has approached the target's board;(2) the shell company6 has entered into an exclusivity period with a target; or(3) the shell company6 has been given access to begin due diligence work (whether or not on a limited basis).
Generally, when a reverse takeover between a shell company and a target6 is announced or leaked, there will be insufficient publicly available information about the proposed transaction and the shell company6 will be unable to assess accurately its financial position and inform the market accordingly. In this case, the FCA will often consider that suspension will be appropriate, as set out in LR 5.1.2G (3) and (4). However, the FCA may agree with the shell company that a suspension
The FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient information in the market about the propos ed transaction if: (1) the target has shares or certificates representing equity securities admitted to a regulated market; and(2) the shell company6 makes an announcement stating that the target has complied with the disclosure requirements applicable on that regulated market and providing details of where information disclosed pursuant to those requirements can be obtaine
The FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient publicly available information in the market about the proposed transaction if the target has securities admitted to an investment exchange or trading platform that is not a regulated market and the shell company6: (1) confirms, in a form acceptable to the FCA, that the disclosure requirements in relation to financial information and inside information of the investment exchange or trading platform on which the target'ssecurities
Where the target in a reverse takeover by a shell company6 is not subject to a public disclosure regime, or if the target has securities admitted on an investment exchange or trading platform that is not a regulated market but the shell company6 is not able to give the confirmation and make the announcement contemplated by LR 5.6.12 G, the FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient publicly available information in the market about the proposed transaction such that
Where the FCA has agreed that a suspension is not necessary as a result of an announcement made for the purpose of LR 5.6.15 G the shell company6 must comply with the obligation under article 17(1) of the Market Abuse Regulation3 on the basis that the target already forms part of the enlarged group.
Where an issuer acquires the shares or certificates representing equity securities of a target with a different listing category from its own and the issuer wishes to maintain its existing listing category, the FCA will generally be satisfied that a cancellation is not required on completion of a reverse takeover if: (1) the issuer will continue to be eligible for its existing listing category following completion of the transaction;(2) the issuer provides an eligibility letter
The FCA will generally be satisfied that a cancellation is not required on completion of a reverse takeover if the target is listed with a different listing category from that of the issuer and the issuer wishes to transfer its listing to a different listing category in conjunction with the acquisition and the issuer as enlarged by the relevant acquisition complies with the relevant requirements of LR 5.4A to transfer to a different listing category.
Where the FCA1 requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act1 (Reports by skilled persons), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FCA1
2Where the FCA1 requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
As part of the decision making process the FCA1 will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report or the updating or collection of information by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed, who should appoint,
The FCA1 will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 of the purpose of the report or collection or updating of information,2 its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The FCA1 will state the matters which the report is to contain, or the information which is to be collected or updated,2 as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may be required to address key risks, key
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the FCA's1 requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the FCA1 the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The FCA1 recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions may include others if appropriate. 222222
A skilled person must appear to the FCA1 to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information.2 A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, compliance consultant,2actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.22
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the FCA1 will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by the FCA1; 22(3)
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the FCA1 to nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint itself,2 a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2 For example, the FCA1 may nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint,2 the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 to prepare a report or collect or update the information2 taking into account, where relevant, the considerations
Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the FCA1 will normally require the skilled person to be appointed to report to the FCA1 through that person. In the normal course of events the FCA1 expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report or the collection of the relevant information prior to its submission to the FCA1. 222222222
The FCA1 may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information2 with that person1, during the preparation of the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information.2 Such discussions may2 involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2222
The FCA1 will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report or collect or update the relevant information. Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the2skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered, or collection or updating
1It also imposes obligations on registered firms to comply with conduct requirements set out in the Schedule to the MCDO, retain relevant information and to deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner. The FCA also has the power to give directions to a registered firm to secure compliance with the requirements set out in the Schedule. In addition, the FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the framework.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the MCDO will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its action,
1Article 23 of the MCDO applies many of the provisions of the Act in relation to the FCA’s investigation and information-gathering powers in respect of a registered firm. The effect of this is to apply the same procedures under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information when investigating contraventions of the MCDO.
1For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the MCDO and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the MCDO is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as
1Article 18(3) applies sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the MCDO and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material as set out under the Act. Article 24(1) applies the procedural provisions of Part 9 of the Act, in respect of matters that can be referred to the Tribunal, and article 24(2) applies Part 26 of the Act to warning and decision notices given under the MCDO.
1 When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the MCDO, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension under the MCDO, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
The FCA4 uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:55(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FCA4. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FCA4 has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FCA4 may include persons who are not FCA4 staff, but
The FCA4 expects to request meetings or access to business premises during reasonable business hours. The FCA4 also normally expects to be able to give reasonable notice to a firm or connected person when it seeks information, documents, meetings or access to business premises. On rare occasions, however, the FCA4 may seek access to premises without notice. The prospect of unannounced visits is intended to encourage firms to comply with the requirements and standards under
In complying with Principle 11, the FCA4 considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the FCA4 of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the FCA4 as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the FCA4 reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession or control, and provide any facilities which the representatives
In complying with Principle 11, the FCA4 considers that a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that the following persons act in the manner set out in SUP 2.3.3 G: (1) its employees, agents and appointed representatives; and(2) any other members of its group, and their employees and agents.(See also, in respect of appointed representatives, SUP 12.5.3 G (2)).
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the FCA4 or persons appointed for the purpose by the FCA4 to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the FCA's4 functions under the Act or its obligations under the short selling regulation3.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements and appointed representatives permit
(1) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements deals in an open and cooperative way with the FCA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm.6(2) The requirement in (1) does not apply to a regulated benchmark administrator where the material outsourcing arrangements relate to the carrying on of the regulated activity of administering a benchmark.64
The cooperation that a firm is expected to procure from such suppliers is similar to that expected of the firm, in the light of the guidance in SUP 2.3.3 G to SUP 2.3.4 G, but does not extend to matters outside the scope of the FCA's4 functions in relation to the firm. SUP 2.3.5 R (2) also requires a firm to take reasonable steps regarding access to the premises of such suppliers.
When a firm appoints or renews the appointment of a supplier under a material outsourcing arrangement, it should satisfy itself that the terms of its contract with the supplier require the supplier to give the FCA4 access to its premises as described in SUP 2.3.5 R (2), and to cooperate with the FCA4 as described in SUP 2.3.7 R. The FCA4 does not consider that the 'reasonable steps' in SUP 2.3.7 R would require a firm to seek to change a contract, already in place either7 when
The FCA4 may ask a firm to provide it with information at the request of or on behalf of other regulators to enable them to discharge their functions properly. Those regulators may include overseas regulators or the Takeover Panel. The FCA4 may also, without notifying a firm, pass on to those regulators information which it already has in its possession. The FCA's4 disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to the obligation described in SUP 2.2.4 G (Confidentiality
7In complying with Principle 11, the FCA considers that a firm should cooperate with it in providing information for other regulators. Sections 169 (Investigations etc. in support of overseas regulator) of the Act gives the FCA certain statutory powers to obtain information and appoint investigators for overseas regulators if required (see DEPP 7 and EG 3).
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
(1) Subject to (1A), a17firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the forms specified on the online notification and application system21. 1417272727181814(1A) A firm wishing to make an application under SUP 6 which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
27Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power or, in respect of FCA-authorised persons, the FCA may exercise its additional own-initiative variation power, in each case26 to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) and Schedule 6A to the Act (Variation or cancellation of Part 4A permission on initiative of FCA: additional power)) if the firm
SYSC 12.1.13R(2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group3 of which a firm is a member, comply with the obligations in this section on a consolidated basis (or sub-consolidated basis). In the FCA’s view, the application of this section at group, parent undertaking and subsidiary undertaking levels in SYSC 19D.3.1R(1) is in line with 3 the application of systems
(1) This section applies in relation to dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way2 that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the dual-regulated firms remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3) Paragraphs (1)
The FCA would normally expect it to be appropriate for the ban on paying variable remuneration to members of the management body of a firm that benefits from exceptional government intervention to apply only to members of the management body who were in office at the time that the intervention was required.
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance within that process of applying judgment and common sense. The FCA expects that a firm will apply qualitative judgements and common sense in the final decision about the performance-related components of variable remuneration pools. (2) [deleted]1(3) We consider good practice in this area to be represented by those firms who provide a quantitative reference or
In the FCA’s view, circumstances in which a person will be using a personal hedging strategy include (and are not limited to) entering into an arrangement with a third party under which the third party will make payments, directly or indirectly, to that person that are linked to or commensurate with the amounts by which the person's remuneration is subject to reductions.
(1) Guaranteed variable remuneration should be subject to the same requirements applicable to variable remuneration awarded by the firm including deferral, malus and clawback.(2) The FCA expects that guaranteed variable awards and retention awards should not be common practice for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff and should be limited to rare, infrequent occurrences. The FCA expects a firm to provide prior notification to the FCA of any proposed retention1 awards.
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in:(a) shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares;(b) cash should also be subject to performance criteria.(2) The FCA would generally expect a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred should generally rise with the ratio
A firm must:(1) set specific criteria for the application of malus and clawback; and(2) ensure that the criteria for the application of malus and clawback in particular cover situations where the employee:(a) participated in, or was responsible for, conduct which resulted in significant losses to the firm; or(b) failed to meet appropriate standards of fitness and propriety.[Note: article 94(1)(n) of the CRD and Standards 6 and 9 of the FSB Compensation Standards][Note: The FSA
The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate the adjustments.
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enable the FCA to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision.(2) SYSC 19D.3.66R and SYSC 19D.3.67R (together with SYSC 19D Annex 1) are:(a) rules referred to in (1) that render void provisions of an agreement that contravene
A person referred to66 in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R37 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)78 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with 37FCA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification56, or other matter 9as is applicable to it, as set
38A person must pay the fee in Categories A5 and A6 of FEES 3 Annex 12R for the first submission of a document to the FCA for approval or review in relation to a significant transaction or super transaction. As an exception to FEES 3.2.1R, after that fee is paid, Categories A1 to A4 of FEES 3 Annex 12R specify the fees a person must pay for any further documents submitted for approval or review in relation to the same transaction.
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission or approver permission70,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations or verification under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations45 or notification
Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32
Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66 31 |
||
31(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26 |
(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application. 66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: 66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or 66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 (4) [deleted]66 1418013434343434343441 |
On or before the application is made |
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30 |
As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(b) [deleted]56 4 |
||
(c) [deleted]66 |
||
(d) [deleted]66 27 |
2727 | |
(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R: 66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme; 66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF; 66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68 66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM. 58366666 |
Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66 36 |
On or before the date the application or notification66 is made 36 |
(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66 66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body; 66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges; 66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body; 66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company; 66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations; 66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations; 66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR; 66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10; 66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier; (xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission70. 272727 |
Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 2727 |
As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 28 |
| 5656 | ||
(eb) [deleted]66 28 |
||
(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66 66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order; 66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme; 66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond; 66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D; 66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for: 66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or 66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act. (vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives. |
Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66 |
As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66 |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256 17781717 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made26 |
(ga) [deleted]52 26353535 |
||
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 7878 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(j) [deleted]38 |
||
(k) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(l) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(m) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(n) [deleted]66 |
||
(o) [deleted]65 112229529782929556782929295557829295782929297829295 |
[deleted]65 5255512515555157857855256 |
[deleted]65 278292978292978229 |
(oa) [deleted]65 2937373737585637373737583737 |
[deleted]65 37 |
[deleted]65 37373737 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26 |
(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66 (2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66 (2A) [deleted]66 (3) [deleted]66 (3A) [deleted]66 (3B) [deleted]66 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66 66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR; (ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R; (3D) [deleted]66 (4) [deleted]66 [deleted]66 3080444130808011178783778378080371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730804111781444444 |
On or before the date the application is made |
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”) |
As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
| 77137913797722227 | 333 | |
| 66 | 566 | |
(s) [deleted]66 5 |
7777375937597777377737 | 37 |
| 20 | ||
(u) [deleted]34 34 |
34 | 34 |
(v) [deleted]38 2222 |
||
[deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(x)[deleted]38 |
||
(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66 8 |
The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66. 47 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(ya) [deleted]66 47 |
47 | 47 |
(z) [deleted]66 47 |
||
(za) [deleted]66 47 |
||
(zb) [deleted]66 47 |
5050475050475047474747475050 | |
(zc) [deleted]66 47 |
474747474747 | |
(zd) 47 |
47 | [deleted]47 |
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12 |
Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 . |
|
(zf) [deleted]78 78 |
78 | 91678 |
(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66. 16 |
The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zh) [deleted]66 16 |
||
(zi) [deleted]66 1614 |
||
(zj) [deleted]66 16 |
5050 | |
(zk) [deleted]66 16 |
||
(zl) [deleted]66 15 |
18 | |
(zm) [deleted]66 18 |
4141 | |
(zn) [deleted]66 18 |
4141 | 21 |
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69. |
An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 3737 |
|
(zs) [deleted]66 3031 |
31303131 | |
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80 |
Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80 |
On or before the application is made.80 |
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39 |
Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees). |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(zw) [deleted]66 4563634963 |
||
(zx) [deleted]66 46 |
63 | |
(zy) [deleted]66 464956 |
63 | |
(zz) [deleted]66 51 |
||
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator. |
The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category). |
On the date the application is made. |
(zzb) [deleted]66 52 |
||
(zzc) [deleted]66 52 |
||
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies |
The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66 Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
(zze) [deleted]66 55 |
||
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository. |
5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. |
On the date the application is made. |
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency. |
The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R. |
On the date the application is made. |
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract. |
(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3). |
On or before the application is made. |
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
(3) Due date |
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
|
On or before the date the application is made. |
||
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
|
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
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[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19
SYSC 12.1.13 R (2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group7 of which a firm is a member comply with the obligations set out in this section on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated) basis. In the FCA’s6 view, the application of6 this section at group, parent undertaking and subsidiary undertaking levels in SYSC 19A.3.1R(1) is in line with67the application of
(1) This section applies in relation to Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way and to the extent that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to the requirement for
(1) Remuneration Code staff comprises:(a) an employee of an IFPRU investment firm whose professional activities have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile, including any employee who is deemed to have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile in accordance with the Material Risk Takers Regulation7; or(b) subject to (2) and (3), an employee of an overseas firm in SYSC 19A1.1.1R(1)(d) (i.e., an overseas firm that would have been an IFPRU investment firm if it had been
The FCA6 would normally expect it to be appropriate for the ban on paying variable remuneration to 3members of the management body of a firm that benefits from exceptional government intervention to apply only in relation to 3members of the management body who were in office at the time that the intervention was required.33
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance within that process of applying judgement6 and common sense. The FCA expects a6firm to apply qualitative judgements and common sense in6 the final decision about the performance-related components6 of variable remuneration pools6. (2) A number of risk-adjustment techniques and measures are available, and a firm should choose those most appropriate to its circumstances.
In the FCA’s6 view, circumstances in which a person will be using a personal hedging strategy include (and are not limited to)6 entering into an arrangement with a third party under which the third party will make payments, directly or indirectly, to that person that are linked to or commensurate with the amounts by which the person'sremuneration is subject to reductions.
(1) Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule, the appropriate regulator8 does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual ("X"), both the following conditions are satisfied:8(a) Condition 1 is that Xs variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that Xs total remuneration is no more than 500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those
A firm must ensure that any approval by the its shareholders or owners or members for the purposes of SYSC 19A.3.44AR is carried out in accordance with the following procedure:535(1) the firm must give reasonable notice to all its shareholders or owners or members of its intention to seek approval of the proposed higher ratio;55(2) the firm must make a detailed recommendation to all its shareholders or owners or members that includes:(a) the reasons for, and the scope of, the
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in:6(a) shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares; and6(b) cash should also be subject to performance criteria.6(2) The FCA6 would generally expect a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred should generally rise with
(1) [deleted]6(2) The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA6 may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate the adjustments.
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the FCA6 to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified prohibitions on guaranteed
The FCA considers the effect of each of the conditions in PERG 8.14.3G (1) to PERG 8.14.3G (3) to be as follows.(1) The first condition requires the financial promotion to be made, so ruling out any financial promotions which are directed at persons. The effect of article 6(b) and (e) of the Financial Promotion Order is that a communication is made to a person when it is addressed to him and that person to whom the financial promotion is addressed is its recipient. This means
In the FCA's opinion, the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G suggest that there are two essential elements of a one-off financial promotion. These are that it is tailored to the circumstances of the recipient and that it is individual in nature (in that it is not simply a personalised letter sent out as part of a general mailshot). Apart from this there is no need for the communication to be an isolated instance. For example, the fact that there may be a considerable number
In the FCA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity or engaging in claims management activity12 jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment
A financial promotion may fail to satisfy all of the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G because it is addressed to more than one recipient and they are not persons who will engage in investment activity or engage in claims management activity12 jointly. In the FCA's view, such a financial promotion is capable of being one-off where the persons are to enter into the same transaction and the promotion is tailored to their individual circumstances. This may typically happen
In the FCA's view, a person such as an investment manager or adviser is not conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he regularly provides a particular client with financial promotions as part of his service. Neither is such a person conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he may have several clients whose personal circumstances and objectives may suggest that a particular investment opportunity may attract them. If he considers the individual
In the FCA's view, a person will not be making one-off financial promotions simply by sending out a series of letters to a number of customers or potential customers where a few details are changed (such as the name and address) but the bulk of the letter is standard. Such letters would be likely to be part of an organised marketing campaign.
In the FCA's view, the article 28A exemption should provide scope for persons such as professional advisers to make unsolicited real time financial promotions in various situations. For example, when approaching persons with whom their clients are proposing to do business or those persons’ professional advisers. The exemption will not apply where the financial promotions are part of an organised marketing campaign (see PERG 8.14.4G (3)). So, in cases where a professional adviser
Whether or not it would be reasonable to believe that any person understands the risks associated with the investment activity covered in a financial promotion or would expect to be contacted about it must be judged on the particular circumstances. In the FCA's opinion, the exemption requires that the recipient has the required understanding of risk at the time the promotion is made to him. However, it would be reasonable to believe that a person understands the risk involved
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
In the FCA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether they are16 certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FCA's8 view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds
Article 49(4) gives the list of conditions which, if all are met, is proof that the financial promotion is directed at relevant persons. It is not necessary for all or any of the conditions to be met for a financial promotion to be regarded as directed at relevant persons. Ultimately the matter will be one of fact to be determined by taking account of the circumstances in which the financial promotion is made. In the FCA's opinion, it is not necessary for a financial promotion,
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that they have16 enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. 13The FCA considers that a 'description of investment' relates to a category of investments with similar characteristics. Examples are given below.33(1) The
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FCA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
In the FCA's view, a main aim of the exemption (see PERG 8.14.35G (1)) is to remove from the scope of section 21 a financial promotion concerning the sale of a corporate business by a person who, either alone or with others, controls the business to another person who, either alone or with others, proposes to control the business.
In the FCA's17 opinion, provided that the purpose of the transaction is for the buyer to acquire the necessary control, it is irrelevant who is the seller. The exemption specifically applies to financial promotions which are communicated on behalf of the parties or potential parties to the transaction.1717
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures or alternative debentures7 in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures or alternative debentures.7 In the FCA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture or
The exemptions for bearer instruments (articles 41 and 42 of the Financial Promotion Order) relate to financial promotions made to or directed at persons entitled to bearer instruments. For clarity, the FCA takes the view that persons who hold bearer instruments through a clearing system such as Euroclear or Clearstream are persons entitled to those instruments for the purposes of articles 41 and 42.
The FCA will treat a firm's application as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FCA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FCA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application.
(1) The purpose of this section is to ensure that the FCA receives regular and comprehensive information about the firm’s systems and controls in preventing financial crime.(2) The purpose of collecting the data in the Annual Financial Crime Report is to assist the FCA in assessing the nature of financial crime risks within the financial services industry.