Related provisions for SUP 18.3.5
121 - 140 of 203 items.
This section specifies the end dates for reporting periods for AIFMs and the reporting period for small AIFMs for the types of AIFM to whom this section applies. Although article 110 of the AIFMD level 2 regulations (Reporting to competent authorities) (as replicated in SUP 16.18.4UK5) applies certain reporting requirements directly to AIFMs, it does not specify the end dates for reporting periods for an AIFM and, for small AIFMs, it does not specify the reporting period. Therefore,
1The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment Products Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
At step 1, the3 aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how the firm should:(1) assess a complaint in order to establish whether the firm's conduct of the sale failed to comply with the rules, or was otherwise in breach of the duty of care or any other requirement of the general law (taking into account relevant materials published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service and former schemes). In this appendix this is referred
(1) The commencement of winding up of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must take place no sooner than 3 months after a notification is made to its unitholders and the FCA3 informing it3 of the binding decision to wind up the master UCITS.(2) Paragraph (1) is without prejudice to any provision of the insolvency legislation in force in the United Kingdom regarding the compulsory liquidation of AUTs, ACSs1 or ICVCs.[Note: article 60(4) last sentence of the UCITS Directive]
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least five years4; and(2) the type of information recorded and the extent to which the record includes4: (a)
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
2The FCA's standard practice is generally to use statutory powers to require the production of documents, the provision of information or the answering of questions in interview. This is for reasons of fairness, transparency and efficiency. It will sometimes be appropriate to depart from this standard practice, for example: (1) For suspects or possible suspects in criminal or market abuse investigations, the FCA may prefer to question that person on a voluntary basis, possibly
This chapter sets out rules and guidance on the role auditors play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. In determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator has regard to whether the firm has appointed auditors with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm. Auditors act as a source of information for the appropriate
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 14, SYSC 18 to10SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or SYSC 23 to 9SYSC 28A12 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344378
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a MiFID complaint under DISP 1.1A.20R(2) include the following:
(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2)
similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;
(3) relevant guidance published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and
(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar
(1) This rule applies if a firm (F1), in the course of performing MiFID or equivalent third country business, receives an instruction to provide3 an investment or ancillary service on behalf of a client (C) through another firm (F2), if F2 is:(a) a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm; or(b) an investment firm that is:(i) a firm5; and(ii) subject to equivalent relevant requirements.(2) F1 may rely upon:(a) any information about C transmitted to it by F2; and(b)
Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)
Category of firm |
Applicable sections |
|
(1) |
A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society5, a non-directive firm45or (in the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission3 54 |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
(1A) |
(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9 (b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3 9 |
|
(2) |
||
(2A) 3 |
4 | all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
5(2B) |
(In the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R , and SUP 11.4.4 R |
(3) |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73 |
|
Note |
In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21 944994494 |
|
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.4 G2 apply in relation to an application for admission of securities11 to premium listing65if an applicant does not have securities11 already admitted to premium listing ,68 the conditions in LR 6.1.1R(1), LR 6.1.1R(2), LR 21.2.5R(1), LR 21.2.5R(2), LR 21.6.13R(1) or LR 21.6.13R(2)11 do not apply and8, in connection with the application, the applicant is required to publish a document under article 1(4)(f) or (g) or (5)(e) or (f) of the Prospectus Regulation
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether