Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
121 - 140 of 1029 items.
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible.
This may include an exchange or an oversea
1Failing
to report promptly in accordance with his APER employer2 internal
procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned), information which it would be
reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned), whether in response to questions
or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 G. The
regulator concerned is:(1) the FCA if
it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance
to it;3(2) the PRA if
it would be reasonable
There
is no duty on an approved person to
report such information directly to the regulator concerned3 unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the APER employer2 for reporting matters to the regulator concerned.3However, if an approved person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report to the regulator concerned or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned, then the FCA1 will, in respect
1In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.4 G complies with Statement of Principle 4,
the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:3(1) the
likely significance to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4 G1) of the information which it was
reasonable for the individual to assume;31(2) whether
the information related to the individual himself or to his APER employer2;(3) whether
any decision
1In determining whether or not an approved person's conduct under APER 4.4.7G complies with Statement of Principle 4, the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:(1) the likely significance of the information to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G) which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether any decision not to inform the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G) was taken after reasonable
An applicant must submit, in final form, to the FCA by midday two business days before the FCA is to consider the application41(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) the prospectus or listing particulars that has been approved by the FCA;64(3) any approved supplementary prospectus or approved supplementary listing particulars, if applicable; 611(4) written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued (pursuant to a board resolution).
11If confirmation of the number of securities to be issued pursuant to a board resolution cannot be submitted to the FCA by the deadline set out in LR 3.4.4 R or, the number of securities to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.4.4 R, written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued or admitted must be provided to the FCA by the applicant at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.
An applicant must comply with LR 3.4.4 R to LR 3.4.6 R with the following modifications:1(1) [deleted]11(2) if the FCA approves the application it will admit to listing all debt securities which may be issued under the programme within 12 months after the publication of the base prospectus or listing particulars subject to the FCA:(a) being advised of the final terms of each issue for which a listing is sought; and1(b) receiving and approving for publication any supplementary
(1) The final terms must be submitted in writing to the FCA as soon as possible after they have been agreed and no later than 2 p.m. on the day before listing is to become effective.(2) The final terms may be submitted by:(a) the applicant; or(b) a duly authorised officer of the applicant.11(3) [deleted]11Note: For further details on final terms, see article 8(5) of the Prospectus Regulation5.1
An issuer4 that seeks admission of debt securities referred to in article 1(2)(b) and (d) of the Prospectus Regulation5 must submit to the FCA in final form a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List.Note: The Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List form can be found on the Primary Markets6 section of the FCA's website.1
Table: FCA approved persons forms and other documents
1Form or other document |
Purpose |
Handbook requirement |
|
The6 relevant Form A |
Application to perform designated senior management functions6 |
||
Form B |
Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the senior managers8 regime |
||
Notice to withdraw an application to vary an approval under the senior managers regime6 |
|||
Form C |
Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions |
||
Form D |
Notification of changes in personal information or application details or functions |
||
Notification about fitness or of breach of conduct rules |
|||
Form E |
Internal transfer of an approved person |
||
Form I |
Application to vary a conditional approval 6 |
||
Form J |
Notification of significant change to a statement of responsibilities |
||
Relevant3statement of responsibilities 2 |
|||
4MiFID Article 4 SMR Information Form |
|||
4Annex III template |
https://www.fca.org.uk/publication/forms/mifid-changes-management-body-form.docx |
As required by the MiFID authorisation and management body change notification ITS6 |
|
[Note: Some of these forms are also used for the purposes of SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives)]86 |
|||
(1) An application or submission by a firm made under this rule must be made by submitting the form or document online at fca.org.uk using the FCA's and PRA'sonline notification and application system6.(2) A firm must use the version of the form or document made available on the electronic system referred to in (1). If the form or document is included in an Annex to this chapter, that electronic version is based on the version found in the applicable Annex to this chapter 6(which
If the information technology systems used by the FCA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA and PRA will endeavour to publish a notice on their websites confirming that:(1) online submission is unavailable; and(2) the alternative methods of submission in SUP 10C.15.14R applies.
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FCA5 may for the purpose of protecting:5(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.5
The procedure the FCA5 will follow if it exercises its power to require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument3 from trading is set out in sections 313B to 313BE of the Act.3 The FCA's internal arrangements provide for decisions to exercise this power to be taken at an appropriately senior level. If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned and the issuer (if any) of the relevant financial instrument may refer the matter to the Tribunal(see EG 2.39)2.2
6Under sections 313CA(2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA imposes a requirement to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading, the FCA must require any trading venue or systematic internaliser, falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, which trades the same instrument to suspend or remove the instrument if the suspension or removal was due to suspected market abuse; a take-over bid; or the non-disclosure of inside information about the issuer
6Under sections 313CB (2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA receives notice that a person operating a trading venue has suspended or removed a financial instrument from trading on the trading venue because the instrument no longer complies with the venue’s rules, the FCA must require any other trading venue or systematic internaliser, falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, which trades the same instrument to suspend or remove the instrument if the suspension
(1) A notification claiming exemption under DISP 1.1.12 R from the complaints reporting rules and the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service must be given to the
FCA
by the Society on behalf of any member eligible for an exemption. (2) The Society must notify the
FCA
if the conditions relating to such an exemption no longer apply to a member who is exempt.
1The Society may choose how it publishes the complaints data summary. However, the complaints data summary should be readily available. For this reason, the
FCA
recommends that the Society publishes the summary on its website. The Society may publish further information with the complaints data summary to aid understanding.
Members will individually comply with this chapter if and only if all complaints by policyholders against members are dealt with under the Lloyd's complaints procedures. Accordingly, certain of the obligations under this chapter, for example the obligation to report on complaints received and the obligation to pay fees under the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service (FEES 5), must be complied with by the Society on behalf of members. Managing agents
1The FCA is required by article 23 of the short selling regulation to consider whether
to impose measures to prohibit or restrict short selling or otherwise limit
transactions in a financial instrument on
a trading venue where the price
of that financial instrument on
that trading venue has fallen
significantly during a single trading day in
relation to the closing price on that venue on the previous trading
day. In fulfilling this obligation, the FCA will assess:(1) whether the
The FCA will assess whether the price fall
in a financial instrument on
a trading venue is or may become
disorderly having regard to at least the following factors:(1) whether there have been violent
movements in the price of the particular financial
instrument on a particular trading
venue, including any sudden or significant movements in price
of a financial instrument during
the trading day;(2) whether there is evidence of unusual
or improper trading in the financial instrument
The FCA will consider at least the following
factors when assessing whether measures to prohibit or restrict short selling
or otherwise limit transactions are necessary or likely to prevent a further
disorderly decline in the price of the financial
instrument:(1) the volume of trading in that financial instrument on the trading venue as compared with the total
trading volume in the financial instrument over
at least that trading day;
and(2) whether the price of the financial instrument
Where the FCA imposes measures under article
23 of the short selling regulation it
will normally specify that the measures will not apply to natural or legal
persons who have satisfied the criteria to use the market
maker exemption or the authorised
primary dealer exemption and who are included on the list maintained
and published by the FCA2 pursuant
to article 17(13) of the short selling regulation.
(1) For the purposes of article 23(1)(b)
of the SSR Delegated Regulation 22 the FCA will convert the figure of EUR
0.50 into pounds sterling using the daily spot foreign exchange rate of Sterling
to Euro of the Bank of England applicable at the end of the first business day of October 2012 rounded up to
the nearest £0.01. The FCA will state this figure (the 'sterling
figure') on its public website.(2) The rate will be calculated on
the same basis at the end of the first business
day
A listed company must inform the FCA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(1) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedequity shares5 to trading; or5(2) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedequity shares;5 or(3) been informed by a RIE that trading of any of its listedequity shares5 will be cancelled or suspended.5
9In addition to the annual confirmation required to be included in a listed company's annual financial report under LR 9.8.4R (14), the FCA may request information from a listed company under LR 1.3.1 R (3) to confirm or verify that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 or a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 is being or has been complied with.
A listed company must ensure that the FCA is provided with up to date contact details of at least one appropriate person nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FCA in relation to the company's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure requirements12 and transparency rules.
9The FCA may modify the operation of LR 9.2.21 R in exceptional circumstances, for example to accommodate the operation of:(1) special share arrangements designed to protect the national interest;(2) dual listed company voting arrangements; and(3) voting rights attaching to preference shares or similar securities that are in arrears.
9A listed company must notify the FCA without delay if: (1) it no longer complies with LR 9.2.2G R; (2) it becomes aware that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by the controlling shareholder or any of its associates; or(3) it becomes aware that a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by a controlling
Q. We are a trading venue operator. Can you please clarify how we can provide a data reporting service under the derogation from needing authorisation in regulation 5(b) to (d) of the DRS Regulations2?A. (1) The derogation (or exception) in article 59(2) of MiFID allowed2 Member States to allow a trading venue operator to provide a data reporting service without prior authorisation, if the operator verified that they complied2 with Title V of MiFID.(2) The United Kingdom2adopted
Q. How do we go about applying to be an ARM?
A. In summary:
(1) You should complete:(a) all of the questions in the application form at MAR 9 Annex 1D; and(b) the notification form for the list of members of the management body at MAR 9 Annex 2D.(2) You should sign the MIS confidentiality agreement at MAR 9 Annex 10D.(3) You should provide the documents referred to in: (a) (1)(a) and (b) together with supporting documentation to the FCA as set out in MAR 9.2.6D; and(b) (2) to
Q. Does an investment firm need to be authorised as an ARM to send transaction reports to the FCA?
A. No. If you are a MiFID investment firm that wishes to send transaction reports to us to satisfy your own transaction reporting obligations under MiFIR or a third country investment firm subject to a similar obligation pursuant to GEN 2.2.22AR2, you do not need to become authorised as an ARM. You are permitted to connect directly to us although there will be a requirement to sign
Q. Can any trading venue report transactions for the purposes of article 26 of MiFIR to the FCA using an ARM?
A. Yes. The ability of a trading venue to submit data to an ARM is consistent with the definition of an ARM which enables a trading venue to submit information, on its own behalf, to an ARM. It is also consistent with paragraph 2 of article 9 [Security] of MiFID RTS 13, which enables a third party to submit information to an ARM on behalf of others. More generally, it
Q. Can a group of investment firms aggregate their reporting via an internal hub?
A. Yes. A group of investment firms may use a hub to assist with aggregating transaction reporting data for each legal entity that is an investment firm in the group for the purposes of article 26 of MiFIR provided that the hub is either an ARM or the hub uses an ARM to report the transaction data to the FCA. Paragraph 2 of article 9 [Security] of MiFID RTS 13 confirms that an investment firm (‘reporting
Q. I intend to apply to be authorised to provide the data reporting service of an APA. May I establish connectivity requirements while my application for authorisation is being considered?A. Yes. The MIS confidentiality agreement is available on our website at www.fca.org.uk/markets/market-data-regimes/market-data-reporting-mdp together with instructions on how to obtain the Market Interface Specification (MIS) for connectivity.
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which has a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future. This does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it applies to cancel its Part 4A permission; or(3) it applies to vary its Part
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which does not have a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future; this does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it changes its registered office or place of residence as the case
Any notification given by a CBTL firm under article 12 of the MCD Order should be:(1) in writing;(2) in English;(3) given to or addressed for the attention of the CBTL firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA (where the CBTL firm does not have an identified supervisory contact this will be the FCA's Supervision Hub2);(4) delivered to the FCA by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5AR to the appropriate address set out in SUP 15.7.6AG; and(5) given by a person who has full knowledge
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT, and section 261D(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the depositary and authorised fund manager of an ACS6. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give the6FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC,
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT or ACS6, the FCA would interpret the concept of directors in common to
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FCA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FCA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
An ICVC must notify the FCA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
Examples of when the FCA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 10% 13(the FCA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage, unless this is precluded by the need to
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R, LR 5.2.11A R9 and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of any of its 5securities11 with a premium listing4must:11114(1) send a circular to the holders of the relevant securities11.9 The circular must:9(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FCA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date
An issuer that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than securities11 with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2) or (2A)11.15144
6In determining whether the statutory winding up or reconstruction measures in relation to an overseasissuer under equivalent overseas legislation have a similar effect to those set out in LR 5.2.12R (1) to LR 5.2.12R (6), the FCA will in particular have regard to whether those procedures require a court order, the approval of 75% of the shareholders entitled to vote on the resolution, or a formal declaration of the overseasissuer's insolvency or inability to pay its debts.
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
(1) The FCA1 will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.1(2) In relation to threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2D to 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect of firms which are not PRA-authorised persons and paragraphs 3C to 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect
Although the FCA1 may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FCA1, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the FCA1threshold conditions. The FCA1 will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to its statutory objectives1. A firm should disclose each relevant matter but, if it
1In determining the weight to be given to any relevant matter, the FCA will consider its significance in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, in the context of its ability to supervise the firm adequately, having regard to the FCA'sstatutory objectives. In this context, a series of matters may be significant when taken together, even though each of them in isolation might not give serious cause for concern.
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
8In certain circumstances the FCA and/or the PRA may use their own-initiative powers or the FCA may use its additional own-initiative variation power6 (see SUP 7 and EG 8) (Variation and cancellation of permission and imposition of requirements6 on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).
(1) [deleted] 33(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.5G]3(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.6G]3(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.7G]3(5) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.8G]3(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.11G]3(7) [deleted] [Editor’s
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers, CBTL firms,20fee-paying electronic money issuers and data reporting services providers20) 20 calculated as follows:107(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR1727 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;27(2) for each of the applicable27 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a fee year26 will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.26(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls
(1) [deleted]17272712112727111127(1A) [deleted] 1727(1B) [deleted] 1727(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and26(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA26 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding
(1) If:(a) a firm:20(i) makes an application to vary its permission (by reducing its scope), or cancel it, in the way set out in SUP 6.3.15D(3) (Variation of permission) and SUP 6.4.5D (Cancellation of permission); or20(ii) applies to vary (by reducing its scope) or cancel its authorisation or registration (regulation 8 and 10(1) of the Payment Services Regulations including as applied by regulation 14 of the Payment Services Regulations); or20(iii) applies to cancel its authorisation
The due dates for payment of periodic fees are modified by FEES 4.3.6R(3), FEES 4.3.6R(4), 24FEES 4.3.6R(4A) and FEES 4.3.4R(7),24 respectively where:20(1) a firm has applied to cancel its:20(a) Part 4A permission; or20(b) its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations; or20(c) its registration as a CBTL firm under article 13(c) of the MCD Order; or20(d) authorisation under regulation 11 of the DRS Regulations; or20(2)
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FCA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FCA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FCA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
The purpose of the 5Code of Practice for Approved Persons is to help an approved person5 to determine whether or not
that person's5 conduct
complies with a Statement of Principle.
The code sets out descriptions of conduct which, in the FCA's opinion,
do or5 do not comply with the relevant Statements
of Principle. The code also sets out certain factors which,
in the opinion of the FCA,
are to be taken into account in determining whether an approved
person's conduct complies with
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons5 is general guidance. The status and effect of general guidance is described in the Readers' Guide. In particular, guidance:5(1) represents the FCA’s view and does not bind the courts or third parties;5(2) is not binding on approved persons, nor does it have ‘evidential’ effect;5(3) need not be followed to achieve compliance with the Statements of Principle, nor is there any presumption that departing from guidance is indicative of a
5In assessing compliance with, or a breach of, a Statement of Principle, the FCA will look at5 all the circumstances of a particular case. 5 Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct
was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case,
the characteristics of the particular accountable
function12 and the behaviour to be expected
in that function. 12
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and
in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of
a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind
of conduct that may contravene the Statements
of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether
or not a person's conduct complies
with a Statement of Principle.
The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FCA5 will amend the code if there is
a risk that unacceptable
In applying Statements of Principle 5 to 7, the nature, scale and complexity of the business under management and the role and responsibility of the individual performing an accountable higher management function5 within the APER employer10 will be relevant in assessing whether an approved person's conduct was reasonable. For example, the smaller and less complex the business, the less detailed and extensive the systems of control need to be. The FCA will be of the opinion that
(1) An APER employer that has its registered office (or, if it has no registered office, its head office) in the United Kingdom with a premium listing is subject to the UK Corporate Governance Code, whose internal control Provisions are amplified in the publication entitled ‘Guidance on Risk Management, Internal Control and Related Financial and Business Reporting (September 2014)’ issued by the Financial Reporting Council. An APER employer in this category will be subject to
The FCA may modify LR 2.2.4 R to allow partly paid securities to be listed if
it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors
have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and
proper basis. [Note: articles 46 and 54 CARD]
1Regulation 27 of the MiFI Regulations provides the FCA with the power to:
(1) require a person to provide information including all relevant documentation, on, or concerning:
(a) a position the person holds in a contract to which a position limit relates; and
(b) trades the person has undertaken, or intends to undertake, in a contract to which a position limit relates; and
(2) require an operator of a trading venue to provide information including all relevant documentation
1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the power of the FCA to intervene in respect of position limits:
(1) Regulation 28 provides that the FCA may, if it considers necessary, limit the ability of any person to enter into a contract for a commodity derivative, restrict the size of positions a person may hold in such a contract, or require any person to reduce the size of a position held, notwithstanding that the restriction or reduction would be more restrictive
1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the power of the FCA to impose reporting requirements in respect of positions taken in commodity derivatives and emission allowances:(1)
Paragraph 8 of Schedule 1 provides that a person must provide the FCA with information in respect of its compliance or non-compliance with position limit requirements, as the FCA may direct; and
(2) Paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 provides that the FCA must maintain arrangements designed to
(1) 1An unauthorised person to which this chapter applies must notify the FCA of:
(a) a breach of a direction in this chapter;
(b) a breach of a directly applicable provision imposed by MiFIR or any onshored regulation2 adopted under MiFID or MiFIR; and
(c) a breach of any requirement imposed by or under the MiFI Regulations which relates to this chapter.
(2) Notifications under (1) must be made immediately if the person becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests,
1
The powers of the FCA referred to in MAR 10.5.1G to MAR 10.5.3G can be applied to a person regardless of whether the person is situated or operating in the UK or abroad, where the relevant position relates to a commodity derivative or emission allowance for which the FCA is responsible for setting a position limit2, or economically equivalent OTC contracts.
1When the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of a member to carry out exempt regulated activities, it will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case, including whether those concerns arise from the fitness and propriety of specific individuals engaged to perform the exempt regulated activities carried out by the member or whether its concerns arise from wider concerns about the member itself.
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1As an alternative to making an order to disapply an exemption, the FCA may consider issuing a private warning. A private warning may be appropriate where the FCA has concerns in relation to a member's fitness and propriety but feels that its concerns in relation to the conduct of exempt regulated activities can be more appropriately addressed by a private warning than by a disapplication of the member's exemption.
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.