Related provisions for EG 12.3.3
561 - 580 of 1026 items.
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) and (where applicable) COLL 6.6.4BR (Specific duties of a depositary: oversight of the liquidity management of a FIIA),18 that the FCA would reasonably view as
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager17of an AUT, ACS10 or an ICVC where such AUT, ACS10 or ICVC is a UCITS scheme13; and17(aa) 13a small authorised UK AIFM that is the authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS or an ICVC that is a non-UCITS retail scheme.17(b) [deleted]17(2) The authorised fund manager has the power to retain the services of any person to assist it in the performance of its functions, provided that:(a) a mandate in relation to managing investments
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires the 8authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
36The RAO and the UK auctioning regulations together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emission allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of a MiFID investment firm (other than a collective portfolio management investment firm) or a third country investment firm (other than one which would be a collective portfolio management investment firm if its head office were in the United Kingdom)38.(1A) The first category also
11(1) 36As explained in PERG 2.6.19DG, an emission allowance and an emissions auction product are both specified investments. The Regulated Activities Order deals with this as follows.3326(2) 36A person in the first category in PERG 2.7.6BG requires permission from the FCA for bidding in emissions auctions but does not require any other permission to do so.3326(3) 36A person in the second category in PERG 2.7.6BG does not require any permission from the FCA for bidding.3326(4)
8In the FCA's view, it is generally the case that providers of back office administration services do not carry out the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments. This is based essentially on the fact that providers of back office administration services aim to assist a broker firm to deal with the aftermath of transactions it has entered into on behalf of its clients. The broker firm has assumed full responsibility to its clients for
(1) 8The scope of article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order (the subject of PERG 2.7.7B G) was considered by the High Court in the case of Watersheds Limited v. David Da Costa and Paul Gentlemen. The judgement suggests that the activity of introducing does not itself constitute a regulated activity for the purposes of article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order. The FCA has considered whether the judgement necessitates any change to the views expressed in PERG 2.7.7B
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of the United Kingdom or25 an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of the United Kingdom or25 an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England,25 the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
[deleted]131(1) In the FCA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
16TC Appendix 5G sets out:(1) the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and(2) the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4E.
The Glossary definition of accredited body contains a list of bodies recognised by the FCA for the purpose of providing the independent verification required under TC 2.1.27 R. Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including a body in the list is set out inTC Appendix 6G and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.1717
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
3(1) A firm must have robust governance arrangements, which include a clear organisational structure with well defined, transparent and consistent lines of responsibility, effective processes to identify, manage, monitor and report the risks it is or might be exposed to, and internal control mechanisms, including sound administrative and accounting procedures and effective control and safeguard arrangements for information processing systems.8(2) [deleted]1313[Note: article 74
The matters dealt with in a business continuity policy should include:(1) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(2) the recovery priorities for the firm's operations; (3) communication arrangements for internal and external concerned parties (including the FCA21, clients and the press);(4) escalation and invocation plans that outline the processes for implementing the business continuity plans, together with
A 21management company10 must establish, implement and maintain accounting policies and procedures that enable it, at the request of the FCA20, to deliver in a timely manner to the FCA20 financial reports which reflect a true and fair view of its financial position and which comply with all applicable accounting standards and rules.[Note: 21article 4(4) of the UCITS implementing Directive]10
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FCA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the establishment of 1the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
This chapter provides
guidance on the Market Abuse Regulation5. It is therefore likely to be helpful to persons who:545(1) want to avoid engaging in market abuse5; or(2) want to determine whether they are required by article 16 of the Market Abuse Regulation5 to report a transaction
5or order to the
FCA
as a suspicious one.
A firm (other than a common platform firm)5 must arrange for orderly records to
be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services
and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the FCA57 to monitor the firm's compliance
with the requirements under the regulatory
system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with
respect to clients.[Note:
5article 12(1)(a) of the UCITS Directive and article
(1) 5A common platform firm must arrange for records to be kept of all services, activities and transactions undertaken by it. (2) The records in (1) must be sufficient to enable the FCA to fulfil its supervisory tasks and to perform the enforcement actions under the regulatory system including MiFID, MiFIR and the Market Abuse Regulation, and in particular to ascertain that the common platform firm has complied with all obligations including those with respect to clients or potential
The FCA interprets the phrase “dealing with” as including having contact with customers5 and extending beyond “dealing” as used in the phrase “dealing in investments”. “Dealing in” is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe in general terms the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
The FCA would expect an individual from overseas to be accompanied on a visit to a customer. TC 2.1.9 R (2) (where it applies)7 provides that the firm will have to be satisfied that the individual has at least three years of up-to-date, relevant experience obtained outside the United Kingdom. However, the remaining provisions of TC 2.1.9 R (2) are disapplied in these circumstances (except for an individual who gives advice to retail clients on retail investment products, gives
(1) Where a depositary of a master UCITS detects any irregularities with regards to the scheme which may have a negative impact on the relevant feeder UCITS, the depositary must immediately inform:(a) the FCA;(b) the feeder UCITS or, where applicable, its management company; and(c) the depositary of the feeder UCITS.(2) The irregularities referred to in (1) include, but are not limited to:(a) errors in the valuation of the scheme property performed in accordance with COLL 6.3.3
(1) When notifying the FCAof any irregularities in accordance with COLL 11.4.3R (1), the depositary of the master UCITS should also inform the depositary of the feeder UCITS how the master UCITS or its authorised fund manager has resolved or proposes to resolve the irregularity.(2) Where the depositary of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is informed by the depositary of a master UCITS of an irregularity and is not satisfied that the resolution or proposed resolution is in
The obligations to supply information to1 the FCA under either SUP 10A.14.8R or SUP 10A.14.10R1 apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm or its appointed representative4 and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not (and should ensure that its appointed representatives do not)4 enter into any such
The payment accounts report required by SUP 16.22.3D and SUP 16.22.4R must be submitted:(1) by electronic means made available by the FCA;2(2) in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 41AD; notes for the completion of the report are set out in SUP 16 Annex 41BG; and(3) within two months of the end of the relevant reporting period.
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the FCA6 or another competent authority.(1A) 7Paragraph (1) does not apply to a firm to the extent that it is incompatible with 8obligations under article 44(8) of the MiFID Org Regulation. (2) Paragraph
A firm must provide the following, at the FCA’s request, within 14 days from receipt of the request:
(1) a description of the nature of its algorithmic trading strategies;
(2) details of the trading parameters or limits to which the firm’s system is subject;
(3) evidence that MAR 7A.3.2R (systems and controls) and MAR 7A.3.3R (business continuity and system tests) are met;
(4) details of the testing of the firm’s systems;
(5) the records in MAR 7A.3.8R(2) (accurate and time-sequenced
(1) 1The purpose of this chapter is to implement articles 57 and 58 of MiFID by setting out the necessary directions, rules and guidance.(2)
In particular, this chapter sets out the FCA’s requirements in respect of provisions derived from2:(a) articles 57(1) and 57(6) of MiFID, which require it2 to establish limits, on the basis of a methodology determined by ESMA, on the size of a net position which a person can hold, together with those held on the person’s behalf at an aggregate
(1) The scope of this chapter is as follows:
In respect of position limit requirements in MAR 10.2, a commodity derivative position limit established by the FCA in accordance with MAR 10.2.2D(1) applies regardless of the location of the person at the time of entering into the position and the location of execution.
[Note: article 57(14)(a) of MiFID](2) In respect of position management controls requirements:(a) the requirements contained or referred to in MAR 10.3 apply to persons