Related provisions for INSPRU 3.2.28

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COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5

6

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6

6(4B)

for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;

6(4C)

for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6

6

(6)6

for an ACS:

(a)

the contractual scheme deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;

(iii)

authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and

(iv)

states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person7:

(A)

who 7is a:

(i)

professional ACS investor;

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(B)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12B.7R11;

77

(v)

states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeemunits as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);

(vi)

states that for a co-ownership scheme:

(A)

the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);

(B)

the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and

(C)

the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;

(vii)

states:

(A)

whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

(B)

where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person :

7

(i)

who 7is a:

(1)

professional ACS investor; or

(2)

large ACS investor; or

(3)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(ii)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12B.7R11; and

77

(viii)

states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(i)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and

(c)

a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;

(d)

a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;

(e)

the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;

(f)

the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and

(g)

the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:

(i)

acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and

(ii)

enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8
COLL 6.6A.4RRP
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme 3 must:(1) ensure a high level of diligence in the selection and ongoing monitoring of scheme property, in the best interests of the scheme and the integrity of the market;(2) ensure it has adequate knowledge and understanding of the assets in which any scheme it manages is invested;(3) establish written policies and procedures on due diligence and implement effective arrangements for ensuring that investment decisions on behalf of
SUP 12.9.5RRP
2If a MiFID investment firm5 appoints an FCA registered tied agent5 this section applies to that firm as though the FCA registered tied agent5 were an appointed representative.
APER 4.1.10GRP
3Deliberately misusing the assets or confidential information of a client or of their APER employer5 falls within APER 4.1.2 G.
BIPRU 9.11.10RRP
When the conditions in this paragraph have been met, and in order to determine its exposure value, a conversion figure of 50% may be applied to the nominal amount of a liquidity facility. The risk weight to be applied is the highest risk weight that would be applied to any of the securitised exposures under the standardised approach by a firm holding the exposures. Those conditions are as follows:11(1) the liquidity facility documentation must clearly identify and limit the circumstances
PERG 9.3.3GRP
An open-ended investment company may be described, in general terms, as a body corporate, most or all of the shares in, or securities of, which can be realised within a reasonable period. Realisation will typically involve the redemption or repurchase of shares in, or securities of, the body corporate. This realisation must be on the basis of the value of the property that the body corporate holds (that is, the net asset value).
FEES 9.2.1BRRP
(1) 3If a payment service provider (A) acquires all or part of the business of another payment service provider which includes transaction volumes (B), whether by merger, acquisition or transfer, during the course of a fee year, the liability for paying the PSR fee in the following fee year in relation to B shall rest with A. (2) FEES 9.2.1BR(1)4 also applies when the business acquired, transferred or merged is not a legal entity but is an unincorporated business, or is in the
BIPRU 7.1.5GRP
Positions in instruments which are non-trading book items should be treated under BIPRU 3 (Standardised credit risk), BIPRU 4 (The IRB approach) or BIPRU 13 (Financial derivatives, SFTs and long settlement transactions) unless deducted as an illiquid asset. If they fall into BIPRU 7.1.3R(2) or (3) they also give rise to a PRR charge.
IPRU-INV 12.1.5RRP
A firm must recognise an asset or liability, and measure its amount, in accordance with the relevant accounting principles applicable to it for the purpose of preparing its annual financial statements unless a rule requires otherwise.
LR 13.6.1RRP
A related party circular must also include:(1) in all cases the following information referred to in the PR Regulation4 relating to the company:Paragraph of Annex 1 of the PR Regulation4;(a) Annex 1 item 4.14 – Issuer name;(b) Annex 1 item 4.44 – Issuer address;(c) Annex 1 item 16.14 – Major shareholders;(d) Annex 1 item 18.7.14 – Significant changes in the issuer’s financial position4;(e) Annex 1 item 20.14 – Material contracts (if it is information which shareholders of the
EG 8.4.4RP
1Examples of requirements that the FCA may consider imposing when exercising its own-initiative power in support of its enforcement function are: a requirement not to take on new business; a requirement not to hold or control client money; a requirement not to trade in certain categories of specified investment; a requirement that prohibits the disposal of, or other dealing with, any of the firm’s assets (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) or restricts
EG 13.10.2RP
1Exceptionally, the FCA will consider making such a challenge using its powers in sections 356 and 357 of the Act after considering, in particular, the following matters: (1) The composition of the creditors of the company including the ratio of consumer to non-consumer creditors or the nature of their claims; (2) whether the FCA has concerns, or is aware of concerns of creditors, about the regularity of the meeting or the identification of connected or associated
IPRU-INV 5 App 1.1GRP

1The following words or terms throughout IPRU-INV 5 appearing in bold (other than headings and titles) are to have the meanings given to them below if not inconsistent with the subject or context. If a defined term is italicised the definition appearing in the main Handbook Glossary applies.

Term

Meaning

accounting reference date

means:

(a)

the date to which a firm's accounts are prepared in order to comply with the relevant Companies Act legislation. In the case of a firm not subject to Companies Act legislation, the equivalent date selected by the firm; and

(b)

in the case of an OPS firm which is not subject to the relevant Companies Act legislation, the date to which the accounts of the OPS in respect of which the firm acts are prepared.

annual expenditure

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.5.1 (Determination).

category a body

means:

(a)

the government or central bank of a zone a country; or

(b)

EU or Euratom (the European Atomic Energy Community); or

(c)

the government or central bank of any other country, provided the receivable in question is denominated in that country's national currency.

category b body

means:

(a)

the European Investment Bank (EIB) or a multi-lateral development bank; or

(b)

the regional government or local authority of a zone a country; or

(c)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in a zone a country; or

(d)

a recognised clearing house or exchange; or

(e)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in any other country, which applies a financial supervision regime at least equivalent to the Capital Adequacy Directive.

counterparty

means any person with or for whom a firm carries on regulated business or an ancillary activity.

counterparty risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Counterparty risk requirement).

expenditure based requirement

means the requirement calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.9.1R (Expenditure based requirement).

financial resources

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.3R (Financial resources).

financial resources requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.1R (Determination of requirement).

financial resources rules

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.

financial return

means quarterly financial return or monthly financial return as the case may be.

foreign exchange position

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.14.1R (Foreign exchange requirement).

investment

means a designated investment in the main Glossary.

investment business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

investment firm

has the meaning given to investment firm in the main Glossary except that it excludes persons to which MiFID does not apply as a result of articles 2 or 3 of MiFID.

Note: An investment firm is not necessarily a firm for the purposes of the rules.

investment manager

means a person who, acting only on behalf of a customer, either:

(a)

manages an account or portfolio in the exercise of discretion; or

(b)

has accepted responsibility on a continuing basis for advising on the composition of the account or portfolio.

liquid capital

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R (Calculation of own funds and liquid capital).

liquid capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Liquid capital requirement).

non-retail client

means a professional client or an eligible counterparty.

OPS or occupational pension scheme

means any scheme or arrangement which is comprised in one or more instruments or agreements and which has, or is capable of having, effect in relation to one or more descriptions or categories of employment so as to provide benefits, in the form of pensions or otherwise, payable on termination of service, or on death or retirement, to or respect of earners with qualifying service in an employment of any such description or category.

OPS firm

means:

(a)

a firm which:

(i)

carries on OPS activity but not with a view to profit; and

(ii)

is one or more of the following:

(A)

a trustee of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(B)

a company owned by the trustees of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(C)

a company which is:

(I)

an employer in relation to the occupational pension scheme in question in respect of its employees or former employees or their dependants; or

(II)

a company within the group which includes an employer within (I); or

(III)

an administering authority subject to the Local Government Superannuation Regulations 1986; or

(b)

a firm which:

(i)

has satisfied the requirements set out in (a) at any time during the past 12 months; but

(ii)

is no longer able to comply with those requirements because of a change in the control or ownership of the employer referred to in (a)(ii) during that period.

otc derivative

means interest rate and foreign exchange contracts covered by Annex III to the previous version of the Banking Consolidation Directive (i.e. Directive (2000/12/EC) and off balance sheet contracts based on equities which are not traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange or other exchange where they are subject to daily margin requirements, excluding any foreign exchange contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less.

other assets requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.17.1R (Other assets requirement).

own funds

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R and IPRU-INV 5.3.2R, as applicable.

own funds requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.3R and IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Own funds requirement), as applicable.

permitted business

means regulated activity which a firm has permission to carry on.

position risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Position risk requirement).

prescribed subordinated loan agreement

means the subordinated loan agreement prescribed by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of IPRU-INV 5.6.4R.

qualifying capital instrument

means that part of a firm's capital which is a security of indeterminate duration, or other instrument, that fulfils the following conditions:

(a)

it may not be reimbursed on the bearer's initiative or without the prior agreement of the appropriate regulator;

(b)

the debt agreement must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the payment of interest on the debt;

(c)

the lender's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors;

(d)

the documents governing the issue of the securities must provide for debt and unpaid interest to be such as to absorb losses, whilst leaving the firm in a position to continue trading; and

(e)

only fully paid-up amounts shall be taken into account.

qualifying capital item

means that part of a firm's capital which has the following characteristics:

(a)

it is freely available to the firm to cover normal banking or other risks where revenue or capital losses have not yet been identified;

(b)

its existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and

(c)

its amount is determined by the management of the firm and verified by independent auditors, and is made known to, and is monitored by, the FCA.

2

qualifying property

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.1R (Qualifying property and qualifying amount defined).

qualifying subordinated loan

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.6 (Qualifying subordinated loans).

qualifying undertaking

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.3R (Qualifying undertakings).

readily realisable investment

means a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme, a life policy or any marketable investment other than one which is traded on or under the rules of a recognised or designated investment exchange so irregularly or infrequently:

(a)

that it cannot be certain that a price for that investment will be quoted at all times; or

(b)

that it may be difficult to effect transactions at any price which may be quoted.

regulated business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

relevant foreign exchange items

means:

(a)

all assets less liabilities, including accrued interest, denominated in the currency (all investments at market or realisable value);

(b)

any currency future, at the nominal value of the contract;

(c)

any forward contract for the purchase or sale of the currency, at the contract value, including any future exchange of principal associated with currency swaps;

(d)

any foreign currency options at the net delta (or delta-based) equivalent of the total book of such options;

(e)

any non-currency option, at market value;

(f)

any irrevocable guarantee;

(g)

any other off-balance sheet commitment to purchase or sell an asset denominated in that currency.

reporting currency

means the currency in which the firm's books of account are maintained.

specified trustee business

1.

means any investment business carried on in the UK by a trustee firm, but excluding each of the following activities:

(a)

Dealing or arranging deals in investments

(i)

where the deal is transacted or arranged by a trustee firm with or through a PTP; or

(ii)

where the dealing or arranging is done in the course of, or is incidental to, an activity of management falling within paragraph (b) below; or

(iii)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and the deal is or the arrangements are made with a view to either an issue or sale of units in such a scheme to, or a redemption or repurchase or conversion of such units or a dealing in investments for such a scheme carried out by with or through, the operator or on the instructions of the operator; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm, being a bare trustee (or, in Scotland, a nominee) holding investments for another person, is acting on that person's instructions; or

(v)

where any arrangements do not or would not bring about the transaction in question.

(b)

Managing investments

(i)

where the trustee firm has no general authority to effect transactions in investments at discretion; or

(ii)

if and to the extent that all day-to-day decisions in relation to the management of the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken by a PTP; or

(iii)

if and to the extent that investment decisions in relation to the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken substantially in accordance with the advice given by a PTP; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm is a personal representative or executor and is acting in that capacity; or

(v)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and all day-to-day investment decisions in the carrying on of that activity are or are to be taken by the operator of the scheme.

(c)

Investment advice

(i)

where the relevant advice:

(A)

does not recommend the entry into any investment transaction or the exercise of any right conferred by any investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert such an investment; and

(ii)

if and to the extent that the relevant advice is in substance the advice of a PTP; or

(iii)

where the relevant advice is given by the trustee firm acting in the capacity of personal representative or executor.

(d)

Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme including acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust scheme but only to the extent that such activities do not otherwise constitute specified trustee business.

(e)

Any trustee activity undertaken as trustee of an issue of debentures or government or public securities:

(i)

where the issue is made by a company listed on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange (or by a wholly-owned subsidiary of such a company); or

(ii)

where the issue is listed or traded either on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange or on the Société de la Bourse de Luxembourg; or

(iii)

where the issue is made by a government, local authority or international organisation; or

(iv)

where the aggregate amounts issued (pursuant to the trust deed or any deed supplemental thereto and ignoring any amounts redeemed, repurchased or converted) exceed the sum of £10,000,000.

2.

For the purpose of this definition of "specified trustee business":

(a)

a transaction is entered into through a person if that person:

(i)

enters into it as agent; or

(ii)

arranges for it to be entered into as principal or agent by another person and the arrangements are such that they bring about the transaction in question;

(b)

investment transaction means a transaction to purchase, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a particular investment and "investment decision" means a decision relating to an investment transaction;

(c)

debentures means any securities falling within article 77 of the RAO;

(d)

government or public securities means any securities falling within article 78) of the RAO;

(e)

government, local authority or international organisation means:

(i)

the government of the United Kingdom, of Northern Ireland, or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

(ii)

a local authority in the United Kingdom or Anywhere; or

(iii)

an international organisation the members of which include the United Kingdom2.

(f)

in determining the size of an issue of debentures or government or public securities made in a currency other than sterling, the amount of the issue shall be converted into sterling at the exchange rate prevailing in London on the date of issue.

total capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.5R (Total capital requirement).

trading book

in relation to a firm's business or exposures, means:

(a)

its proprietary positions in financial instruments:

(i)

which are held for resale and/or are taken on by the firm with the intention of benefiting in the short term from actual and/or expected differences between their buying and selling prices or from other price or interest-rate variations;

(ii)

arising from matched principal broking;

(iii)

taken in order to hedge other elements of the trading book;

(b)

exposures due to unsettled securities transactions, free deliveries, OTC derivative instruments, repurchase agreements and securities lending transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above, reverse repurchase agreements and securities borrowing transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above; and

(c)

fees, commission, interest and dividends, and margin on exchange-traded derivatives which are directly related to the items included in (a) and (b) above.

trustee activity

means, in relation to a firm, any activity undertaken in the course of or incidental to the exercise of any of its powers, or the performance of any of its duties, when

unit trust manager

means the manager of a unit trust scheme.

zone b country

means a country which is not a Zone A country in the Glossary.
LR 9.6.13RRP
A listed company must notify a RIS of the following information in respect of any new director appointed to the board as soon as possible following the decision to appoint the director and in any event within five business days of the decision:(1) details of all directorships held by the director in any other publicly quoted company at any time in the previous five years, indicating whether or not he is still a director;(2) any unspent convictions in relation to indictable offences;(3)
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66

31

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application.

66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 76

(i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 76

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 76

(4) [deleted]66

1417613434343434343441

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) [deleted]56

4

(c) [deleted]66

(d) [deleted]66

27		 2727

(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R:

66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme;

66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF;

68

66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68

66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM.

58366666

Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66

36

On or before the date the application or notification66 is made

36

(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66

66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body;

66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges;

66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body;

66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company;

66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations;

66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations;

66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR;

66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10;

66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier;

(xii) an application for, to vary or cancel an approver permission70.

272727

Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

2727

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

28

28(ea) [deleted]66

5656

(eb) [deleted]66

28

(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66

66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;

66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme;

66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond;

66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D;

66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for:

66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or

66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act.

(vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.

Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or62

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256

17741717

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

(ga) [deleted]52

26353535

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE74 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7474

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) [deleted]66

(o) [deleted]65

112229529742929556742929295557429295742929297429295

[deleted]65

5255512515555157457455256

[deleted]65

274292974292974229

(oa) [deleted]65

2937373737585637373737583737

[deleted]65

37

[deleted]65

37373737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table

26

(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66

(2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66

(2A) [deleted]66

(3) [deleted]66

(3A) [deleted]66

(3B) [deleted]66

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66

66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR;

(ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R;

(3D) [deleted]66

(4) [deleted]66

[deleted]66

3076444130767611174743774377676371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730764111741444444

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137513757722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

 66 566

(s) [deleted]66

5		 7373375937597373377337 37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34		 34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35		 35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66

8

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66.

47

On or before the date the application is made.

(ya) [deleted]66

47		 47 47

(z) [deleted]66

47

(za) [deleted]66

47

(zb) [deleted]66

47		 5050475050475047474747475050

(zc) [deleted]66

47		 474747474747

(zd)

47		 47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]74

74		 74 91674

(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66.

16

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66

On or before the date the application is made.

(zh) [deleted]66

16

(zi) [deleted]66

1614

(zj) [deleted]66

16		 5050

(zk) [deleted]66

16

(zl) [deleted]66

15		 18

(zm) [deleted]66

18		 4141

(zn) [deleted]66

18		 4141 21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

74(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

74(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

(zs) [deleted]66

3031		 31303131

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 76

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 76

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 76

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 76

On or before the application is made.76

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(zw) [deleted]66

4563634963

(zx) [deleted]66

46		 63

(zy) [deleted]66

464956

56

63

(zz) [deleted]66

51

52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.

The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).

On the date the application is made.

(zzb) [deleted]66

52

(zzc) [deleted]66

52

54(zzd) applications for claims management companies

The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66

Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.

On the date the application is made.

(zze) [deleted]66

55

61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.

5,000

Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.

The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.

On the date the application is made.

64(zzh) Permission for

(1) carrying on funeral plan distribution;

(2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or

(3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.

(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below.

(2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be:

(a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2);

(b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3).

(3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be:

(a) £500 for (zzh)(1);

(b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and

(c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).

On or before the application is made.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SYSC 19D.3.67RRP
(1) Subject to (2) to (7), the rules in SYSC 19D Annex 1.1R to 1.6R apply in relation to the prohibitions on dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff being remunerated in the ways specified in:(a) SYSC 19D.3.44R (guaranteed variable remuneration);(b) SYSC 19D.3.59R (1deferred variable remuneration);(c) SYSC 19D.3.61R(2) (performance adjustment – clawback); and(d) SYSC 19D Annex 1.10R (replacing payments recovered or property transferred).(2) Paragraph (1) applies only to those
CASS 7.11.29GRP
When a client's obligation or liability, which is secured by that client's asset, crystallises, and the firm realises the asset in accordance with an agreement entered into between the client and the firm, the part of the proceeds of the asset to cover such liability that is due and payable to the firm is not client money. However, any proceeds of sale in excess of the amount owed by the client to the firm should be paid over to the client immediately or be held in accordance