Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

EG 19.14.3RP
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing 2 failures. These options include2:• to prosecute a relevant person, including but not limited to an 2authorised firm or3an 2Annex I financial institution3or an auction platform5, a cryptoasset exchange provider or a custodian wallet provider,4as well as any responsible officer2;2• to fine or censure a relevant person, including
PERG 8.21.5GRP
Where statements or briefings are only available to analysts who are, or who work for, authorised persons (including overseas persons who would need to be authorised if they were conducting their business in the United Kingdom), article 19 will exempt any financial promotion that may be made (see PERG 8.12.21 G). Furthermore, where a financial promotion is made in the course of an interactive dialogue with an analyst and is addressed to him, the financial promotion will be regarded
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FCA5 will have regard, and to which a firm7 should also have regard, 5include, but are not limited to:556(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will
CONC 7.3.7AGRP
(1) 3If a customer is in default or in arrears difficulties, the firm should, where appropriate:(a) inform the customer that free and impartial debt advice is available from not-for-profit debt advice bodies; and(b) refer the customer to a not-for-profit debt advice body. (2) A firm may refer the customer to a not-for-profit debt advice body by, for example, providing the customer with a copy of the current arrears information sheet under section 86 of the CCA, or with the name
COLL 6.12.8GRP
Authorised fund managers6 are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
SUP 15.14.3DRP
A full credit institution to which regulation 105 of the Payment Services Regulations applies must notify the FCA if it refuses a request for access to payment account services from:(1) a person falling within paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) (excluding (1)(d)) of the Glossary definition of payment service provider; or(2) an applicant for authorisation or registration as such a payment service provider.
PERG 7.6.12GRP
An application may be refused on the grounds that the FCA is not satisfied that the principal purpose of the publication or service is neither of those mentioned in article 54(1)(a) or (b) of the Regulated Activities Order (see PERG 7.4.5 G). An application may also be refused on the grounds that the FCA considers that the vehicle through which advice is to be given is not a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication, a regularly updated news or information service
MCOB 6.9.11RRP
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
REC 2.4A.2UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 2B

(1)

If the [UK RIE] is significant the following requirements apply to the management body -

(a)

members of the management body must not at the same time hold positions exceeding more than one of the following combinations –

(i)

one executive directorship with two non-executive directorships (or where so authorised by the FCA under regulation 44(1) [of the MiFI Regulations], three non-executive directorships); or

(ii)

four non-executive directorships (or where so authorised by the FCA under regulation 44(1) [of the MiFI Regulations], five non-executive directorships); and

(b)

the management body must have a nomination committee unless it is prevented by law from selecting and appointing its own members.

(2)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1)(a) -

(a)

any directorship in which the person represents the United Kingdom is not counted;

(b)

executive or non-executive directorships -

(i)

held within the same group, or

(ii)

held within the same undertaking where the [UK RIE] holds a qualifying holding2,

shall be counted as a single directorship; and

(c)

any directorship in an organisation which does not pursue predominantly commercial objectives is not counted.

(3)

The nomination committee referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b) must -

(a)

be composed of members of the management body who do not perform an executive function in the [UK RIE];

(b)

identify and recommend to the [UK RIE] persons to fill management body vacancies;

(c)

at least annually assess the structure, size, composition and performance of the management body and make recommendations to the management body;

(d)

at least annually assess the knowledge, skills and experience of individual members of the management body and of the management body collectively and report to the management body accordingly; and

(e)

periodically review the policy of the management body for the selection and appointment of senior management and make recommendations to the management body; and

(f)

be able to use any forms of resource it deems appropriate, including external advice.

(4)

In performing its functions under sub-paragraph (3), the nomination committee must take account of the need to ensure that the management body’s decision making is not dominated by-

(a)

any one individual; or

(b)

a small group of individuals,

in a manner that is detrimental to the interests of the [UK RIE] as a whole.

(5)

In performing its function under sub-paragraph 3(b) the nomination committee must -

(a)

evaluate the balance of knowledge, skills, diversity and experience of the management body;

(b)

prepare a description of the roles, capabilities and expected time commitment for any particular appointment;

(c)

decide on a target for the representation of the underrepresented gender in the management body and prepare a policy on how to meet that target;

(d)

engage a broad set of qualities and competences, and for that purpose have a policy promoting diversity on the management body.

(6)

In sub-paragraph (1), “significant” in relation to a [UK RIE] means significant in terms of the size and internal organisation of the [UK RIE] and the nature, scale and complexity of the [UK RIE’s] activities.

2(7)

In sub-paragraph (2)(b)(ii)—

“qualifying holding” means a direct or indirect holding in an investment firm which represents 10% or more of the capital or of the voting rights, as set out in Articles 9 and 10 of Directive 2004/109/EC, taking into account the conditions regarding aggregation thereof laid down in Article 12(4) and (5) of that Directive, or which makes it possible to exercise a significant influence over the management of the investment firm in which that holding subsists;

“Directive 2004/109/EC” means Directive 2004/109/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the harmonisation of transparency requirements in relation to information about issuers whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market.

DISP 2.3.1ARRP
17The Ombudsman can also consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by: (1) an investment firm authorised under the UK provisions which implemented22MiFID when providing investment services or ancillary services;(2) a CRD credit institution when providing one or more investment services;(3) an investment firm authorised under the UK provisions which implemented22MiFID or a CRD credit institution when selling structured deposits
CONC 7.6.2ARRP
(1) 2This rule applies where the terms of a regulated credit agreement or a P2P agreement do not provide for a continuous payment authority and it is proposed that a customer will grant a continuous payment authority to:(a) a lender or a person who has permission to carry on the activity of operating an electronic system in relation to lending; or(b) a debt collector¸ provided that the debt collector is acting under an arrangement with the lender or the person who has permission
EG 8.5.2RP
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
COLL 6.13.6RRP
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme2must ensure a high level of security during the electronic data processing referred to in COLL 6.13.5 R as well as the integrity and confidentiality of the recorded information, as appropriate.[Note: article 7(2) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
REC 2.7.1BUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7C

2(1)

This paragraph applies to [a UK RIE] which provides central counterparty, clearing or settlement facilities.

(2)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules based on objective criteria, governing access to those facilities.

(3)

[deleted] 5

(4)

The [UK RIE] may refuse access to those facilities on legitimate commercial grounds.