Related provisions for EG 19.34.20
81 - 100 of 1033 items.
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
1In determining whether a UK RIE3has provided sufficient supporting information, the FCA4may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:44(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.
1
A data reporting services provider must promptly complete the notification form for changes to the membership of the management body form at MAR 9 Annex 6D to inform the FCA of any change to the membership of its management body before any change to the membership of its management body or when this is impossible within 10 working days after the change.
1As soon as possible and within 2 weeks of being authorised as an APA or a CTP, an APA or a CTP seeking a connection to the FCA’s market data processor system must:(1) sign the MIS confidentiality agreement at MAR 9 Annex 10D; and(2) email it to MDP.onboarding@fca.org.uk or post an original signed copy to the FCA addressed to:
The Financial Conduct Authority
FAO The Markets Reporting Team
25 The North Colonnade12 Endeavour Square3
Canary Wharf
London E20 1JN.3E14 5HS.
(1) To ensure the security of the FCA’s systems, the FCA requires an APA or a CTP to sign the MIS confidentiality agreement before receiving the FCA’s Market Interface Specification (MIS).(2) Once the FCA receives the MIS confidentiality agreement from the APA or the CTP, the FCA will provide the APA or the CTP with Market Interface Specification (MIS).
A data reporting services provider must promptly provide the forms in MAR 9 Annexes 5D, 6D, 7D, 8D and 9D and supporting documentation to the FCA: (1) at MRT@fca.org.uk; or(2) by posting it to the FCA, addressed to:
The Financial Conduct Authority
The Markets Reporting Team12 Endeavour Square3
London E20 1JN.3
An auditor of a firm must submit a client assets 5report addressed to the FCA which: 5(1) 5(a) states the matters set out in SUP 3.10.5 R; and55(b) specifies the matters to which SUP 3.10.9 R and SUP 3.10.9A R refer; or (2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets, states whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that the firm held client money or custody assets during the period covered by the report.
SUP 3.10.4 R provides that an auditor must ensure that a client assets report is prepared in accordance with the terms of, as the case may be, a reasonable assurance engagement or a limited assurance engagement. However, the FCA also expects an auditor to have regard, where relevant, to material published by the Financial Reporting Council 11that deals specifically with the client assets report which the auditor is required to submit to the FCA. In the FCA's view, a client assets
335(1) 5If an auditor expects that it will fail to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must no later than the end of the four month period in question:(a) notify the FCA that it expects that it will be unable to deliver a client assets report by the end of that period; and(b) ensure that the notification in (a) is accompanied by a full account of the reasons for its expected failure to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R.(2) If an auditor fails to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must promptly:(a)
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
1It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the firm is an exempt insurance intermediary for the purposes of this requirement and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.
5An auditor must:(1) deliver to a firm a draft of its client assets report such that the firm has an adequate period of time to consider the auditor’s findings and to provide the auditor with comments of the kind to which SUP 3.11.1 G refers; and(2) unless it is the auditor of a firm falling within category (10) of SUP 3.1.2 R, deliver to the firm a copy of the final report at the same time as it delivers that report to the FCA in accordance with SUP 3.10.7 R.
(1) 5The FCA expects that the list of breaches will include every breach of a rule in CASS insofar as that rule is within the scope of the client assets report and is identified in the course of the auditor’s review of the period covered by the report, whether identified by the auditor or disclosed to it by the firm, or by any third party.(2) 5For the purpose of determining whether to qualify its opinion or express an adverse opinion, the FCA would expect an auditor to exercise
The first activity (article 25A(1) and (2A)2) is referred to in this guidance as arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts. Various points arise:(1) It is not necessary for the potential borrower himself to be involved in making the arrangements.(2) This activity is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about a regulated mortgage contract. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 (see PERG 4.5.4 G). As explained in PERG 4.5.4A G, this
Article 26 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arrangements not causing a deal) excludes from article 25A(1) arrangements which do not bring about or would not bring about the regulated mortgage contract in question. In the FCA's view, a person brings about or would bring about a regulated mortgage contract if his involvement in the chain of events leading to the transaction is of enough importance that without that involvement it would not take place.
In the FCA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word "merely". When a publisher, broadcaster or Internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him to provide his service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, he may well bring himself within the scope of article 25A(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 8.32.6 G to
Arranging a regulated mortgage contract (or contract variation) to which the arranger is to be a party is excluded from both article 25A(1) and (2) by article 28A of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging contracts to which the arranger is a party). As a result, a person cannot both be entering into a regulated mortgage contract and arranging a regulated mortgage contract under article 25A as regards a particular regulated mortgage contract. This means that a direct sale by
An unauthorised person who makes arrangements for or with a view to a regulated mortgage contract between a borrower and an authorised person, is excluded from article 25A(1) and (2), 25A(2A) and2 by article 29 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging deals with or through authorised persons) if specified conditions as to advice and remuneration are satisfied. For example, the exclusion is dependent on the borrower not receiving any advice on the regulated mortgage contract
The exclusion applies for introductions to:(1) an authorised person who has permission to carry on a regulated activity specified in article 25A (Arranging regulated mortgage contracts) or article 53A (Advising on regulated mortgage contracts) or article 61(1) (Entering into a regulated mortgage contract as lender); introducers can check the status of an authorised person and its permission by visiting the Financial Services Register1 at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/;11(2) an
In the FCA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a buyer in connection with a transfer of property. For example, article 33A allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
In the FCA's view, details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 4.5.14G (2) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient for the introducer to
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 4.5.14G (3) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees and this and other relevant information may be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower, as appropriate.
The FCA would normally consider the dissolution of a sub-pool, such that the firm no longer operates the sub-pool or no longer uses the relevant net margined omnibus client account or transfers the business to another authorised central counterparty, to be examples of material changes to a sub-pool.
The records maintained under this section, including the sub-pool disclosure documents, are a record of the firm that must be kept in a durable medium for at least five years following the date on which client money was last held by the firm for a sub-pool to which those records or the sub-pool disclosure document applied.
1Where the FCA interviews a person, it will allow the person to be accompanied by a legal adviser, if they wish. The FCA will also, where appropriate, explain what use can be made of the answers in proceedings against them. Where the interview is tape-recorded, the person will be given a copy of the audio tape of the interview and, where a transcript is made, a copy of the transcript.
1
Individuals suspected of a criminal offence may be interviewed under caution. These interviews will be subject to all the safeguards of the relevant Police and Criminal Evidence Act Codes and are voluntary on the part of the suspect. The FCA will warn the suspect at the start of the interview of their right to remain silent (and the consequences of remaining silent) and will inform the suspect that they are entitled to have a legal adviser present. The FCA
1If a suspect has been interviewed by the FCA using statutory powers, before they are re-interviewed on a voluntary basis (under caution or otherwise), the FCA will explain the difference between the two types of interview. The FCA will also tell the individual about the limited use that can be made of their previous answers in criminal proceedings or in proceedings in which the FCA seeks a penalty for market abuse under Part VIII of the Act.
1Conversely, where a suspect has been interviewed under caution, and the FCA later wishes to conduct a compulsory interview with them, the FCA will explain the difference between the two types of interview, and will notify the individual of the limited use that can be made of his answers in the compulsory interview.
1On occasion, where the police have a power of arrest, the FCA may make a request to the police for assistance to arrest the individual for questioning by the FCA (FCA investigators do not have powers of arrest), for example: (1) where it appears likely that inviting an individual to attend on a voluntary basis would prejudice an ongoing investigation or risk the destruction of evidence or the dissipation of assets; or (2) where a suspect declines an invitation to attend a voluntary
1Where the FCA has appointed an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator2, it may, under sections 169(7) or 131FA of the Act2, direct the investigator to allow a representative of that regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the purposes of the investigation. However, the FCA may only use this power if it is satisfied that any information obtained by an overseas regulator2as a result of the interview will be subject to safeguards
1The factors that the FCA may take into account when deciding whether to make a direction under section 169(7) include the following: (1) the complexity of the case; (2) the nature and sensitivity of the information sought; (3) the FCA's own interest in the case; (4) costs, 2and the availability of resources; and (5) the availability of similar assistance to UK authorities in similar circumstances.
The issuer must ensure that a director or a1senior manager of the issuer verifies the application by confirming on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports as required by RCB 2.3.16 D and is satisfied that:(1) the information provided in the application is correct and complete; and (2) the arrangements relating to the covered bond or programme will comply with the requirements in the RCB Regulations and in RCB.
1For a consumer contract term, if the FCA decides, after notifying the Competition and Markets Authority (the CMA), to the extent required by Schedule 3 to the CRA, to address issues using its powers under Schedule 3, if the contract term is within the CRA's scope, it will, unless the case is urgent, generally first write to a person using or proposing or recommending the use of that term.
1When writing, the FCA will express its concerns about whether the term is or would be unfair within the meaning of sections 62 to 64 of the CRA, or non-transparent within the meaning of section 68 of the CRA, or purports or would purport to exclude or restrict any liability described in the sections of the CRA specified in paragraph 3(2) of Schedule 3 and will invite the person's comments on those concerns.
1If the FCA, having considered those comments, remains of the view that the term is or would be unfair or non-transparent or purports, or would purport, to be exclusionary or restrictive, as described above, it will normally ask the person to undertake to stop using, relying on or recommending it or proposing its use. It should be noted that, under paragraphs 2(3), 6(3) and 7(1) of Schedule 3 to the CRA, such an undertaking must be notified by the FCA to the CMA and any relevant
1In relation to a notice to consumers within the CRA's scope, the FCA will generally, after notifying the CMA, request such an undertaking from the relevant person, if the notice causes the FCA relevant concerns, without first seeking comments. Although the FCA will, unless the case is an urgent one and time does not permit, then have regard to any representations responsive to that request.
1If, whether in relation to such a notice or such a term, the person either declines to give such an undertaking, or gives such an undertaking and fails to follow it, the FCA will consider the need to apply to court for an injunction under Schedule 3 to the CRA. The FCA will, again, notify the CMA appropriately at this stage, as required by Schedule 3.
1In determining whether to seek an injunction under Schedule 3 to the CRA against a person, after or, in an urgent case, instead of requesting such an undertaking, the FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case. A number of factors may be relevant for this purpose. The following list is not exhaustive; not all of the factors may be relevant in a particular case, and there may be other factors that are relevant such as: (1) whether the FCA is satisfied that the contract
1In an urgent case, the FCA may seek a temporary injunction, to prevent the continued or potential use of the term or notice until it can be fully considered by the court. An urgent case is one in which the FCA considers that the actual or potential detriment is so serious that urgent action is necessary. In deciding whether to apply for a temporary injunction, the FCA may take into account a number of factors, including one or more of the factors set out in paragraph 10.6.7.
(1) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.3.2G]66(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.3.3G]6(3) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.3.1G]6(4) [deleted]66(5) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.3.4G]6
The appropriate regulator4 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)4 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator4 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.444
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's4 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.44
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the appropriate regulator4 will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the appropriate regulator4 will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the appropriate regulator4 either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application. If the appropriate regulator4proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the appropriate regulator4 will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the appropriate regulator4 proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.4
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) or (for RAPs) regulation 4 of the RAP regulations7; or63(2) make a direction under section 296 (FCA's4powers to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations7; or463(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision) or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations7;263is
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations,7 the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:634(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31may affect the
In considering whether or not to make a recognition order, the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors, including its guidance to recognised bodies and applicants and the information provided by applicants. Details of the application processes and other guidance for applicants are set out in REC 5 and (for overseas applications) REC 6.4
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations7, the FCA4 will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the members of the management body5 or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.634
3Key steps in the section 298 procedure4
| 4 | ||
(1) |
give written notice to theRIE4 (or applicant); 4 |
The notice will state why the FCA4 intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the period within which representations should be made (unless subsequently extended by the FCA)4. 4 |
(2)4 4 |
receive representations from the RIE or applicant concerned;4 4 |
The FCA4 will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from theRIE (or applicant)4. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RIE4 on request. 444 |
(3)4 4 |
write promptly to RIE (or applicant)4 who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations; 4 |
The FCA4 will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA4 will allow the RIE (or applicant)4 further time to respond. 444 |
(4)4 4 |
have regard to representations made; |
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(5)4 4 |
(when it has reached its decision) notify the RIE4 (or applicant) concerned in writing. 4 |
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| 4 |
7For RAPs, key steps in the regulation 5 procedure
6The FCA will: |
||
(1) |
give written notice to the RAP (or applicant); |
The notice will state why the FCA intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the date by which representations should be made. |
(2) |
take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring the notice to the attention of the members of the RAP or of the applicant, as the case may be; |
The FCA will also notify persons individually (as far as it considers it reasonably practicable to do so) if it considers that the action it proposes to take would affect them adversely in a way which would be different from its effect on other persons of the same class. |
(3) |
publish the notice so as to bring it to the attention of other persons likely to be affected; |
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(4) |
receive representations from the RAP or applicant concerned, any member of the RAP or applicant, and any other person who is likely to be affected by the action the FCA proposes to take; |
The FCA will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from the person concerned. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RAP (or applicant) itself or of a person whom it has notified individually, on request. |
(5) |
write promptly to any person who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations; |
The FCA will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA will allow the person concerned further time to respond. |
(6) |
have regard to representations made; |
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(7) |
(when it has reached its decision) notify the RAP (or applicant) concerned in writing; |
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(8) |
(if it has decided to give a direction, or revoke or refuse to make a recognition order) take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring its decision to the attention of members of the RAP or applicant and to other persons likely to be affected. |
The FCA will usually give notice of its decision to the same persons and in the same manner as it gave notice of its intention to act. |
(1) An application should be made by the proprietor of the relevant publication or service using the appropriate form, accessible from our website (see Forms/ Perimeter Guidance manual forms and Certificate A, Certificate B and Certificate C). The form asks for general information about the applicant and gives guidance notes on completion and other details of how the FCA can help.(2) An applicant will be asked to state his own view of the principal purpose of the publication or
The Act does not specify a time limit for processing the application but the FCA intends to deal with an application as quickly as possible. The more complete and relevant the information provided by an applicant, the more quickly a decision can be expected. But on occasion it may be necessary to allow time in which the FCA can monitor the content of the service. This might happen where, for example, a service is in a form that makes record keeping difficult (such as a large website
The FCA will form an overall view as to the purpose (or purposes) underlying the publication or service. It will then determine whether the principal purpose is neither of those referred to in article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order. Because the possible range of subject matter covered by different publications or services is very wide it is not possible to apply standard tests. The FCA will form a judgment as to the overall impression created by the publication or service.
If the FCA decides to grant the application it will issue a certificate. The certificate will normally be granted for an indefinite period. It will state what it is that the FCA considers constitutes the periodical or service in relation to which the FCA is satisfied that the exclusion in article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. In many cases this will be self-evident. But it may sometimes be necessary to include further details in the certificate indicating what
An application may be refused on the grounds that the FCA is not satisfied that the principal purpose of the publication or service is neither of those mentioned in article 54(1)(a) or (b) of the Regulated Activities Order (see PERG 7.4.5 G). An application may also be refused on the grounds that the FCA considers that the vehicle through which advice is to be given is not a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication, a regularly updated news or information service
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must notify the FCA immediately in writing by e-mail, or hand-delivered letter, if requirements relating to the relevant regulated covered bond under the RCB Regulations or RCB are, or are likely to be, materially breached, or of any other matter which the FCA should be made aware of.
(1) Every appointed representative8 will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing function.532(2) [deleted]5332(3)
(1) The explanation in SUP 10C.5B.2G of
the basis on which the group entity senior manager function is
included as a controlled function for an SMCR firm is also
relevant to7 the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the appointed representative’s8parent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The guidance in SUP 10C.5B.3G
to SUP 10C.5B.5G about when the group
For a branch8 in the United Kingdom of a non-UKappointed representative8, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the appointed representative8 as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under them8 with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch8 which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the appointed representative8 responsible for UK operations may, if
Where a UK RIE proposes to operate a new regulated market or close an existing regulated market it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14A.3 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them). 3
Where a UK RIE proposes to operate a new MTF or OTF4 or close an existing MTF or OTF4 it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14A.5 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them).3
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.14A.4 R:(1) [Note:REC 2.16A.1(2) requires the FCA to be provided with a detailed description of the operation of an MTF or OTF. The description must be provided in the form set out in MiFID ITS 19.]4(2) Where4 the UK RIE proposes to close a MTF or OTF4, the name of that MTF or OTF4.
4A UK RIE operating a trading venue that proposes to take advantage of a waiver in accordance with articles 4 or 9 of MiFIR (in relation to pre-trade transparency for equity or non-equity instruments) must make an application for it to the FCA using the form in MAR 5 Annex 1D.[Note: articles 4 and 9 of MiFIR, and MiFID RTS 1 and MiFID RTS 2]
4A UK RIE operating a trading venue that proposes to take advantage of a deferral in accordance with articles 7 or 11 of MiFIR in relation to post-trade transparency for equity or non-equity instruments must apply for it in writing to the FCA.[Note: articles 7 and 11 of MiFIR, and MiFID RTS 1 and MiFID RTS 2]
4A UK RIE should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to its usual supervisory contact at the FCA. An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given appr
2The AIFMD
UK regulation includes information gathering and sanctioning powers that enable the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the regulations and onshored regulations4. Specific standalone powers are in the AIFMD
UK regulation for unauthorised AIFMs, by applying relevant sections of the Act. Amendments to the Act, including those made under the Financial Services and Markets Act (Qualifying Provisions) Order 2013 (as amended
2The FCA has decided that its approach to enforcing the AIFMD
UK regulation requirements will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act in EG 2. Therefore, the FCA will apply the same procedures and policies under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information for breaches of the AIFMD UK regulation.
2The FCA will respect the principle of proportionality when taking action against SEF managers or RVECA managers4 for breaches identified in articles 22 and 21 of the SEF regulation or RVECA regulation4, respectively. The FCA may take action to ensure compliance with the regulations or prohibit the use of the designation of SEF manager or RVECA manager4 and revoke registration of such managers. The prohibition route is more likely to apply to serious breaches of the onshored regulations4
2The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some decisions under the AIFMD
UK regulation, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.35. For decisions made by executive procedures, the procedures to be followed are in DEPP 4.
2The AIFMD
UK regulation applies the procedural provisions of Part and Part 26 of the Act for matters that can be referred to the Tribunal and to warning and decision notices under the regulations as it applies to referrals and notices under the Act. The AIFMD
UK regulation also applies sections 205 and 206 of the Act to unauthorised AIFMs and, accordingly, the FCA will give third party rights (section 393 of the Act) and access to material
2When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty under the AIFMD
UK regulation, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5A, DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
2Regulation 71(2) of the AIFMD
UK regulation applies section 169 of the Act in respect of unauthorised AIFMs, which requires the FCA to have a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. The FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
The conditions in article 18(2) include a requirement that the person making the financial promotion does not select, modify or otherwise exercise control over its content before it is transmitted or received. Article 18(3) provides that a person is not selecting, modifying or exercising control merely as a result of having power to remove material which is illegal, defamatory or in breach of copyright or at the request of a regulatory body or where the law requires him to do
The conditions in article 18 also require that the person acting as the mere conduit must communicate in the course of an activity1 carried on by him the principal purpose of which is transmitting or receiving material provided to him by others. In the FCA's view, what matters is that the person is carrying on an activity1 which has the required principal purpose. Such an activity1 might represent but a part of a person’s overall business1 activities (however small), so long as
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
Provided the conditions in PERG 8.12.25 G are met, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion. However, there is an additional condition where the subject matter of the financial promotion is shares or options, futures or contracts for differences relating to shares and the financial promotion identifies directly a person who issues or provides such an investment, or the subject matter of the financial promotion is a controlled claims management
The effect of PERG 8.12.27G (1) is that a journalist will not breach section 21 by not disclosing a financial interest, providing that the publication, service or broadcast concerned operates proper systems and procedures. As with the exemption in article 12 of the Financial Promotion Order (see PERG 8.12.6 G), what proper systems and procedures are will be a matter ultimately for the courts to determine and may vary according to the medium used. It will depend upon all the circumstances
Persons such as experts or analysts may be approached to contribute at very short notice and may be overseas. In such cases, the systems and procedures referred to in PERG 8.12.29 G may not be practical. It is the FCA's opinion that, where occasional contributors are concerned, proper systems and procedures may include arrangements for ensuring that the need for disclosure (or the avoidance of financial interests) is drawn to the contributor’s attention before the communication
It appears to the FCA, however, that there will be situations when it may not be practical for the persons who are responsible for a publication, service or broadcast to apply proper systems and procedures to every person who may, whilst acting in the capacity of a journalist, communicate a financial promotion. For example where persons are asked to stand in at the last moment. In such cases, it is the FCA's opinion that the benefit of the exclusion will not be lost as respects
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FCA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FCA cannot
1Under section 166 of the Act, the FCA has a power to require a firm and certain other persons to provide a report by a skilled person, or itself to appoint a skilled person to produce such a report. The FCA may use its section 166 power to require reports by skilled persons to support both its supervision and enforcement functions.
1The factors the FCA will consider when deciding whether to use the section 166 power include: (1) If the FCA's objectives for making further enquiries are predominantly for the purposes of fact finding i.e. gathering historic information or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FCA's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 167 and 168 of the Act are likely to be more effective and more appropriate than the power under
1Where it exercises this power, the FCA will make clear both to the firm and to the skilled person the nature of the concerns that led the FCA to decide to appoint a skilled person and the possible uses of the results of the report. But a report the FCA commissions for purely diagnostic purposes could identify issues which could lead to the appointment of an investigator and/or enforcement action.
1Under section 166A of the Act, the FCA also has a power to require a firm to appoint a skilled person to collect or update information, or itself to appoint a skilled person to do so, where it considers that the firm has failed to provide information required by the FCA or update information previously provided to the FCA.