Related provisions for SYSC 13.2.3

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REC 2.3.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its relevant functions, the FCA5 may have regard to:5(1) the operational and other risks to which the UK recognised body is exposed;(2) if the UK recognised body guarantees the performance of transactions in specified investments, the counterparty and market risks to which it is exposed in that capacity; 5(3) the amount and composition of the UK recognised body's capital;(4)
REC 2.3.6GRP
In assessing whether a UK recognised body has sufficient financial resources in relation to operational and other risks, the FCA5 may have regard to the extent to which, after allowing for the financial resources necessary to cover counterparty and market risks, the UK recognised body's financial resources are sufficient and sufficiently liquid:5(1) to enable the UK recognised body to continue carrying on properly the regulated activities that it expects to carry on; and(2) to
REC 2.3.7GRP
In considering whether a UK recognised body has sufficient financial resources in relation to operational and other risks, the FCA5 will normally have regard to two components: eligible financial resources and net capital.454
REC 2.3.9GRP
4(1) 4The FCA5 considers that a UK RIE which at any time holds:5(a) eligible financial resources not less than the greater of:(i) the amount calculated under the standard approach; and (ii) the amount calculated under the risk-based approach; and (b) net capital not less than the amount of eligible financial resources determined under (1)(a);will, at that time, have sufficient financial resources to meet the recognition requirement in respect of operational and other risks unless
REC 2.3.10GRP
4The FCA5 would expect to provide a UK recognised body with individual guidance, issued with a frequency determined in accordance with the usual prudential cycle for such bodies, communicated from time to time,6 on the amount of eligible financial resources which it considers would be sufficient for the UK recognised body to hold in respect of operational and other risks6 to satisfy the recognition requirements. In formulating its individual guidance, the FCA5 will ordinarily
REC 2.3.17GRP
4The financial risk assessment should be based on a methodology which provides a reasonable estimate of the potential business losses which a UK RIE might incur in stressed but plausible market conditions. The FCA5 would expect a UK RIE to carry out a financial risk assessment at least once in every twelve-month period, or more frequently if there are material changes in the nature, scale or complexity of the UK RIE's operations or its business plans that suggest such financial
REC 2.3.20GRP
4The FCA5 would expect to consider the relevant annual6 financial risk assessment, any proposal with respect to an operational risk buffer and, if applicable, the consolidated balance sheet, in formulating, in accordance with the usual prudential cycle for UK RIEs,6 its guidance on the amount of eligible financial resources it considers to be sufficient for the UK RIE to hold for6 the recognition requirements. In formulating its guidance, the FCA5 would, where relevant, consider
REC 2.3.21GRP
4The FCA5 would normally consider a UK recognised body to be failing the recognition requirements if it held financial resources less than the amount calculated under REC 2.3.9G (1)(a)(i) (in respect of UK RIEs). The FCA5 therefore expects a UK recognised body to hold an operational risk buffer of a sufficient amount in excess of this minimum, to ensure that it is at all times able to comply with its regulatory obligations.555
REC 2.3.22GRP
(1) [deleted]55(2) The FCA5 would normally expect a UK RIE to hold, in addition to the minimum amount determined under REC 2.3.9G (1)(a)(i), an operational risk buffer consistent with a risk-based approach.5(a) Where the amount of eligible financial resources calculated by a UK RIE under REC 2.3.17G (5) (the risk-based approach) is greater than the amount of eligible financial resources calculated under REC 2.3.13 G (the standard approach), and the difference is of an amount sufficient
SYSC 13.2.1GRP
SYSC 13 provides guidance on how to interpret SYSC 3.1.1 R and SYSC 3.2.6 R, which deal with the establishment and maintenance of systems and controls, in relation to the management of operational risk. Operational risk has been described by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision as "the risk of loss, resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events". This chapter covers systems and controls for managing risks concerning any
SYSC 13.2.2GRP
Operational risk is a concept that can have a different application for different firms. A firm should assess the appropriateness of the guidance in this chapter in the light of the scale, nature and complexity of its activities as well as its obligations as set out in Principle 3, to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively.
SYSC 13.2.4AGRP
1Operational risk can, amongst other things, lead to unfair treatment of consumers or lead to financial crime. A firm should consider all operational risk events that may affect these matters in establishing and maintaining its systems and controls.
SYSC 13.7.1GRP
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for managing operational risks that can arise from inadequacies or failures in its processes and systems (and, as appropriate, the systems and processes of third party suppliers, agents and others). In doing so a firm should have regard to:(1) the importance and complexity of processes and systems used in the end-to-end operating cycle for products and activities (for example, the level of integration of systems);(2)
SYSC 13.7.2GRP
Internal documentation may enhance understanding and aid continuity of operations, so a firm should ensure the adequacy of its internal documentation of processes and systems (including how documentation is developed, maintained and distributed) in managing operational risk.
SYSC 13.7.3GRP
A firm may use external documentation (including contracts, transaction statements or advertising brochures) to define or clarify terms and conditions for its products or activities, its business strategy (for example, including through press statements), or its brand. Inappropriate or inaccurate information in external documents can lead to significant operational exposure.
SYSC 13.7.9GRP
Operating processes and systems at separate geographic locations may alter a firm's operational risk profile (including by allowing alternative sites for the continuity of operations). A firm should understand the effect of any differences in processes and systems at each of its locations, particularly if they are in different countries, having regard to:(1) the business operating environment of each country (for example, the likelihood and impact of political disruptions or
SYSC 13.4.1GRP
Under Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.1 R, a firm must notify the FCA1 immediately of any operational risk matter of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. SUP 15.3.8 G provides guidance on the occurrences that this requirement covers, which include a significant failure in systems and controls and a significant operational loss.
SYSC 13.4.2GRP
Regarding operational risk, matters of which the FCA1 would expect notice under Principle 11 include:(1) any significant operational exposures that a firm has identified;(2) the firm's invocation of a business continuity plan; and(3) any other significant change to a firm's organisation, infrastructure or business operating environment.
SYSC 13.6.1GRP
A firm should consult SYSC 3.2.2 G to SYSC 3.2.5 G for guidance on reporting lines and delegation of functions within a firm and SYSC 3.2.13 G to SYSC 3.2.14 G for guidance on the suitability of employees and appointed representatives or, where applicable, its tied agents1. This section provides additional guidance on management of employees and other human resources in the context of operational risk.
SYSC 13.6.2GRP
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for the management of operational risks that can arise from employees. In doing so, a firm should have regard to:(1) its operational risk culture, and any variations in this or its human resource management practices, across its operations (including, for example, the extent to which the compliance culture is extended to in-house IT staff);(2) whether the way employees are remunerated exposes the firm to the
SYSC 13.6.3GRP
A firm should ensure that all employees are capable of performing, and aware of, their operational risk management responsibilities, including by establishing and maintaining:(1) appropriate segregation of employees' duties and appropriate supervision of employees in the performance of their responsibilities (see SYSC 3.2.5 G);(2) appropriate recruitment and subsequent processes to review the fitness and propriety of employees (see SYSC 3.2.13 G and SYSC 3.2.14 G);(3) clear
SYSC 13.9.1GRP
As SYSC 3.2.4 G explains, a firm cannot contract out its regulatory obligations and should take reasonable care to supervise the discharge of outsourced functions. This section provides additional guidance on managing outsourcing arrangements (and will be relevant, to some extent, to other forms of third party dependency) in relation to operational risk. Outsourcing may affect a firm's exposure to operational risk through significant changes to, and reduced control over, people,
SYSC 13.9.3GRP
A firm should not assume that because a service provider is either a regulated firm or an intra-group entity an outsourcing arrangement with that provider will, in itself, necessarily imply a reduction in operational risk.
SYSC 13.9.4GRP
Before entering into, or significantly changing, an outsourcing arrangement, a firm should:(1) analyse how the arrangement will fit with its organisation and reporting structure; business strategy; overall risk profile; and ability to meet its regulatory obligations;(2) consider whether the agreements establishing the arrangement will allow it to monitor and control its operational risk exposure relating to the outsourcing;(3) conduct appropriate due diligence of the service
BIPRU 8.7.1GRP
The calculation of the consolidated capital resources requirement of a firm's UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group5 involves taking the individual components that make up the capital resources requirement on a solo basis and applying them on a consolidated basis. Those components are the capital charge for credit risk (the credit risk capital requirement), the capital charge for market risk (the market risk capital requirement)4 and the fixed overheads requirement.
BIPRU 8.7.26RRP
[deleted]4
BIPRU 8.7.29RRP
In accordance with BIPRU 8.2.1 R and BIPRU 8.3.1 R (The basic consolidation rules for a UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-groups5), a firm may exclude that part of the risk capital requirement that arises as a result of:(1) (in respect of the consolidated credit risk requirement) intra-group balances; or(2) (in respect of the4consolidated fixed overheads requirement) intra-group transactions;with other undertakings in the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-groups5.
SUP 16.12.11RRP

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms

IPRU(INV)Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)Chapter 5

91

IPRU(INV)Chapter 13

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 4)

No standard format (note 6)

No standard format (note 4)

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 2)

FSA029

(note 5)

FSA029

91

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 2)

FSA030

(note 5)

FSA030

91

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(note 2 and 3)

FSA033

(note 5)

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071

(note 7)

91

Section D1 RMAR

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 13)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 3)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

91

Section C RMAR

CFTC

FSA040 (note 8)

FSA040 (note 8)

FSA040 (note 8)

91

FSA040 (note 8)

Liquidity

MIF002

(notes 2, 3 and 10)

Metrics reporting

MIF003

(notes 2 and 3)

Concentration risk (non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 2, 3 and 11)

Concentration risk (K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 2, 3 and 11)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 3 and 12)

Liquidity Questionnaire

MLA-M (note 9)

MLA-M (note 9)

MLA-M (note 9)

91

MLA-M (note 9)

Note 1

All firms (except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must, when submitting the completed data item required, use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25G.

Note 2

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 3

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 4

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 5

Except if the firm is an adviser (as referred to in IPRU-INV (3)-60(4)R).

Note 6

Only required in the case of an adviser (as referred to in IPRU-INV (3)-60(4)R)) that is a sole trader.

Note 7

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.

Note 8

Only applicable to firms granted a Part 30 exemption order and operating an arrangement to cover forward profits on the London Metals Exchange.

Note 9

Only applicable to RAG 3 firms carrying on home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts, unless as at 26 April 2014 the firm’sPart 4A permission was and remains subject to a restriction preventing it from undertaking new home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts.

Note 10

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.

Note 11

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 12

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 13

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.
SUP 16.12.15RRP

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out76 according to firm type76 in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 5

91

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 11

(collective portfolio management firms only)

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 12

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

(note 2)

No standard format

No standard format

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

FSA029

FSA029

91

FSA029

FSA029

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

FSA030

FSA030

91

FSA030

FSA030

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(note 3 and 4)

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071

(note 5)

91

FIN066

FIN069

Section D1 RMAR

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 4)

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 9)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Volumes and types of business

FSA03895

FSA038

FSA038

91

FSA038

FSA038

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

91

FSA039

FSA039

Section C RMAR

Liquidity

MIF002

(notes 3, 4 and 6)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 4)

Concentration risk (non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 4 and 7)

Concentration risk (K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 4 and 7)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 4 and 8)

Information on P2P agreements

FIN070

Note 1

All firms, except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9, must, when submitting the completed data item required, use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 5

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.

Note 6

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU [6].

Note 7

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 8

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 9

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.
SUP 16.12.22ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms subject to IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Firms that are also in one or more of RAGs 2 to 6 and not subject to IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

No standard format

(note 2)

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(notes 3 and 6)

Section D1 RMAR (note 9)

Liquidity

MIF002 (notes 3, 4 and 6)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 6)

Concentration risk

(non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 5 and 6)

Concentration risk

(K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 5 and 6)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 6 and 8)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 6)

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 10)

Professional indemnity insurance (note 11)90

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Training and competence

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

COBS data

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

Adviser charges

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm (except a MIFIDPRU investment firm in relation to an item reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R, or SUP 16 Annex 18AR in the case of the RMAR. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25, or SUP 16 Annex 18BG in the case of the RMAR.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.

Note 5

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 6

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 7

This item only applies to firms that provide advice on retail investment products and P2P agreements.

Note 8

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 9

Where a firm submits data items for both RAG 7 and RAG 9, the firm must complete Section D1.

Note 10

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

Note 11

This item only applies94 to firms that are subject to an FCA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance94.

90
SUP 16.12.25ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms other than MIFIDPRU investment firms

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 5

91

IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

(note 2)

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

FSA029

FSA029

91

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

FSA030

FSA030

91

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(notes 3 and 5)

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN071

(note 4)

91

Section D1 RMAR

Liquidity

MIF002

(notes 3 and 5)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 5)

Concentration risk (non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 5 and 7)

Concentration risk (K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 5 and 7)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 5 and 6)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 5)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 17)

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

91

Section C RMAR (note 13) or FSA039

Note 1

All firms (except MIFIDPRU investment firms in relation to items reported under MIFIDPRU 9) when submitting the completed data item required, must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R.

Note 5

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 6

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 7

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.
SYSC 13.8.1GRP
The exposure of a firm to operational risk may increase during times of significant change to its organisation, infrastructure and business operating environment (for example, following a corporate restructure or changes in regulatory requirements). Before, during, and after expected changes, a firm should assess and monitor their effect on its risk profile, including with regard to:(1) untrained or de-motivated employees or a significant loss of employees during the period of
SYSC 13.8.3GRP
SYSC 3.2.19 G provides high level guidance on business continuity. This section provides additional guidance on managing business continuity in the context of operational risk.
BIPRU 1.3.7DRP
6[deleted]
BIPRU 1.3.8DRP
6[deleted]
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66

31

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table

26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application.

66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission66, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

(4) [deleted]66

1418013434343434343441

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) [deleted]56

4

(c) [deleted]66

(d) [deleted]66

27		 2727

(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R:

66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme;

66(ii)

application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF;

68

66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68

66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM.

58366666

Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66

36

On or before the date the application or notification66 is made

36

(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66

66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body;

66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges;

66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body;

66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company;

66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation;

66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations;

66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations;

66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR;

66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10;

66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier.

272727

Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

2727

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66

28

28(ea) [deleted]66

5656

(eb) [deleted]66

28

(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66

66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;

66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme;

66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond;

66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D;

66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for:

66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or

66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act.

(vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.

Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66

As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or62

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations6256

17781717

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

(ga) [deleted]52

26353535

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) [deleted]66

(o) [deleted]65

112229529782929556782929295557829295782929297829295

[deleted]65

5255512515555157857855256

[deleted]65

278292978292978229

(oa) [deleted]65

2937373737585637373737583737

[deleted]65

37

[deleted]65

37373737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table

26

(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66

(2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66

(2A) [deleted]66

(3) [deleted]66

(3A) [deleted]66

(3B) [deleted]66

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66

66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR;

(ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R;

(3D) [deleted]66

(4) [deleted]66

[deleted]66

3080444130808011178783778378080371137373030233737373730373737303711113737303730804111781444444

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137913797722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

 66 566

(s) [deleted]66

5		 7777375937597777377737 37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34		 34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35		 35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66

8

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66.

47

On or before the date the application is made.

(ya) [deleted]66

47		 47 47

(z) [deleted]66

47

(za) [deleted]66

47

(zb) [deleted]66

47		 5050475050475047474747475050

(zc) [deleted]66

47		 474747474747

(zd)

47		 47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78		 78 91678

(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66.

16

The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66

On or before the date the application is made.

(zh) [deleted]66

16

(zi) [deleted]66

1614

(zj) [deleted]66

16		 5050

(zk) [deleted]66

16

(zl) [deleted]66

15		 18

(zm) [deleted]66

18		 4141

(zn) [deleted]66

18		 4141 21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

(zs) [deleted]66

3031		 31303131

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(zw) [deleted]66

4563634963

(zx) [deleted]66

46		 63

(zy) [deleted]66

464956

56

63

(zz) [deleted]66

51

52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.

The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66

Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).

On the date the application is made.

(zzb) [deleted]66

52

(zzc) [deleted]66

52

54(zzd) applications for claims management companies

The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66

Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.

On the date the application is made.

(zze) [deleted]66

55

61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.

5,000

Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.

On the date the application is made.

61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.

The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.

On the date the application is made.

64(zzh) Permission for

(1) carrying on funeral plan distribution;

(2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or

(3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.

(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below.

(2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be:

(a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2);

(b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3).

(3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be:

(a) £500 for (zzh)(1);

(b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and

(c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).

On or before the application is made.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

BIPRU 2.2.27GRP
(1) This paragraph applies to a proportional ICAAP in the case of a firm whose activities are complex.(2) A proportional approach to that firm'sICAAP should cover the matters identified in BIPRU 2.2.26 G, but is likely also to involve the use of models, most of which will be integrated into its day-to-day management and operation.(3) Models of the sort referred to in (2) may be linked so as to generate an overall estimate of the amount of capital that a firm considers appropriate
BIPRU 2.2.61GRP
An asset manager is primarily exposed to operational risk and reputational risk.
BIPRU 2.2.63GRP
As an asset manager's mandates become more complex, the risk of it failing to comply fully with the terms of its contracts increases. In the event of such failure, a firm can be exposed to substantial losses resulting from customers' claims and legal actions. Although the appropriate regulator would expect an asset manager to have in place adequate controls to mitigate that risk, it may also like to consider the potential cost to it should customers claim that it has not adhered
SYSC 13.3.1AGRP
3The following is a non-exhaustive list of rules and guidance in the Handbook that are relevant to a firm's management of operational risk: (1) COBS contains rules and guidance that can relate to the management of operational risk; for example, COBS 2 (Conduct of business obligations), COBS 4 (Communicating with clients, including financial promotions), COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration), COBS 7 (Insurance distribution2), COBS 9 (Suitability (including
SYSC 13.5.1GRP
In this chapter, the following interpretations of risk management terms apply:(1) a firm's risk culture encompasses the general awareness, attitude and behaviour of its employees and appointed representatives or, where applicable, its tied agents,1to risk and the management of risk within the organisation;(2) operational exposure means the degree of operational risk faced by a firm and is usually expressed in terms of the likelihood and impact of a particular type of operational
SYSC 13.10.1GRP
Whilst a firm may take out insurance with the aim of reducing the monetary impact of operational risk events, non-monetary impacts may remain (including impact on the firm's reputation). A firm should not assume that insurance alone can replace robust systems and controls.
BIPRU 1.4.1RRP
A contravention of the rules in BIPRU does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action).
CASS 7.13.54GRP
(1) In certain circumstances, use of the normal approach for a particular business line of a firm could lead to significant operational risks to client money protection. These may include a business line under which clients' transactions are complex, numerous, closely related to the firm's proprietary business and/or involve a number of currencies and time zones. In such circumstances, subject to meeting the relevant criteria and fulfilling the relevant notification and audit
CASS 7.13.55RRP
A firm that wishes to adopt the alternative approach for a particular business line must first establish, and document in writing, its reasons for concluding, that:(1) adopting the normal approach would lead to greater operational risks to client money protection compared to the alternative approach;(2) adopting the alternative approach (including complying with the requirements for alternative approach mandatory prudent segregation under CASS 7.13.65 R), would not result in undue
SYSC 19C.3.6GRP
  1. (1)

    In the FCA's view:

    1. (a)

      a firm's staff includes its employees;

    2. (b)

      a person who performs a significant influence function for, or is a senior manager of, a firm would normally be expected to be part of the firm'sBIPRU Remuneration Code staff;

    3. (c)

      the table in (2) provides a non-exhaustive list of examples of key positions that should, subject to (d), be within a firm's definition of staff who are risk takers;

    4. (d)

      firms should consider how the examples in the table in (2) apply to their own organisational structure;

      1
    5. (e)

      firms may find it useful to set their own metrics to identify their risk takers based, for example, on trading limits; and

    6. (f)

      a firm should treat a person as being BIPRU Remuneration Code staff in relation to remuneration in respect of a given performance year if they were BIPRU Remuneration Code staff for any part of that year.

    [Note: The FCA has published guidance on the application of particular rules on remuneration structures in relation to individuals who are BIPRU Remuneration Code staff for only part of a given performance year. This guidance is available at www.fca.org.uk/firms/remuneration

    .]

  2. (2)

    High-level category

    Suggested business lines

    Heads of significant business lines (including regional heads) and any individuals or groups within their control who have a material impact on the firm's risk profile

    Fixed income

    Foreign exchange

    Commodities

    Securitisation

    Sales areas

    Investment banking (including mergers and acquisitions advisory)

    Commercial banking

    Equities

    Structured finance

    Lending quality

    Trading areas

    Research

    Heads of support and control functions and other individuals within their control who have a material impact on the firm's risk profile

    Credit/market/operational risk

    Legal

    Treasury controls

    Human resources

    Compliance

    Internal audit
SYSC 19C.3.23GRP
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance of applying judgment and common sense. A firm should ask the risk management function to validate and assess risk-adjustment techniques and to attend a meeting of the governing body or remuneration committee for this purpose. (2) A number of risk-adjustment techniques and measures are available, and a firm should choose those that are most appropriate to its
BIPRU 3.2.28GRP
For the purpose of BIPRU 3.2.25 R (1)(c) it is the risk management functions of the group that should be integrated, rather than the group's operational management. A firm should ensure that if risk management functions are integrated in this way it should be possible for the appropriate regulator to undertake qualitative supervision of the management of the integrated risk management function.
BIPRU 11.3.2RRP
(1) A firm which has an IRB permission must publicly disclose the information laid down in BIPRU 11.6.1 Rto BIPRU 11.6.4 R.(2) A firm which recognises credit risk mitigation in accordance with BIPRU 5 must publicly disclose the information laid down in BIPRU 11.6.5 R.(3) [deleted]3[Note: BCD Article 145(2), CAD Article 39]1