Related provisions for CASS 6.6.52

261 - 280 of 303 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MAR 5A.5.17RRP
The firm must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event. [Note: article 50 of MiFID and MiFID RTS 25]
COBS 9.2.9RRP
(1) When recommending a small friendly societylife policy, a firm, for the purpose of assessing suitability, need only obtain details of the net income and expenditure of the client and his dependants.(2) A friendly societylife policy is small if the premium:(a) does not exceed £50 a year; or(b) if payable weekly, £1 a week.(3) The firm must keep for five years a record of the reasons why the recommendation is considered suitable.
PERG 7.6.4GRP
The Act does not specify a time limit for processing the application but the FCA intends to deal with an application as quickly as possible. The more complete and relevant the information provided by an applicant, the more quickly a decision can be expected. But on occasion it may be necessary to allow time in which the FCA can monitor the content of the service. This might happen where, for example, a service is in a form that makes record keeping difficult (such as a large website
MCOB 8.6A.9RRP
(1) Whenever a firmenters into or arranges an execution-only sale for an equity release transaction, it must make and maintain a record of:, (a) the required information provided by the customer which satisfies MCOB 8.6A.4R (2);(b) the information in durable medium in MCOB 8.6A.4R (3);(c) the confirmation by the customer in MCOB 8.6A.4R (4) (where applicable); and(d) any advice from the firm which the customer rejected, including the reasons why it was rejected, before deciding
BIPRU 13.7.6RRP
A firm may treat contractual netting as risk-reducing only under the following conditions:(1) the firm must have a contractual netting agreement with its counterparty which creates a single legal obligation, covering all included transactions, such that, in the event of a counterparty's failure to perform owing to default, bankruptcy, liquidation or any other similar circumstance, the firm would have a claim to receive or an obligation to pay only the net sum of the positive and
LR 18.2.8RRP
(1) If an application is made for the admission of a class of certificates representing shares of an overseas company, a sufficient number of certificates must, no later than the time of admission, be distributed to the public6.(2) [deleted]6(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a sufficient number of certificates will be taken to have been distributed to the public when 10% 7of the certificates for which application for admission has been made are in public hands.(4) For the
CREDS 3A.5.10RRP
A firm which carries on an activity which is subject to this section must comply with the following record-keeping and disclosure requirements:(1) the firm must make a record at or near the time of the activity certifying it complies with the requirements set out in this section;(2) the record in (1) must include information and evidence demonstrating compliance with each of the requirements in this section, as applicable;(3) if the requirements of this section did not apply because
ICOBS 6.1.12BGRP
[deleted]64
IPRU-INV 5.8.2RRP

1 Deductions and Ratios (Items 10, 11 and 15)

(a)

[deleted]2

(b)

A firm2which is subject to a liquid capital requirement under IPRU-INV 5.4.1R may take into account qualifying subordinated loans in the calculation of liquid capital up to a maximum of 400% of its Tier 1 capital.

2 Non corporate entities

(a)

In the case of partnerships or sole traders, the following terms should be substituted, as appropriate, for items 1 to 4 in Tier 1 capital:

(i)

partners' capital accounts (excluding loan capital);

(ii)

partners' current accounts (excluding unaudited profits and loan capital);

(iii)

proprietors' account (or other term used to signify the sole trader's capital but excluding unaudited profits).

(b)

Loans other than qualifying subordinated loans shown within partners' or proprietors' accounts must be classified as Tier 2 capital under item 12.

(c)

For the calculation of own funds, partners' current accounts figures are subject to the following adjustments in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme:

(i)

a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset;

(ii)

a firm may substitute for a defined benefit liability the firm'sdeficit reduction amount. The election must be applied consistently in respect of any one financial year.

Note 1

A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.

2A Reserves

For the calculation of own funds the following adjustments apply to the audited reserves figure:

(a)

a firm must deduct any unrealised gains or, where applicable, add back in any unrealised losses on cash flow hedges of financial instruments measured at cost or amortised cost;

(b)

in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme, a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset;

(c)

a firm may substitute for a defined benefit liability the firm's deficit reduction amount. The election must be applied consistently in respect of any one financial year.

Note 2

A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.

(d)

a firm must not include any unrealised gains from investment property.

Note 3

Unrealised gains from investment property should be reported as part of revaluation reserves.

(e)

where applicable, a firm must deduct any asset in respect of deferred acquisition costs and add back in any liability in respect of deferred income (but exclude from the deduction or addition any asset or liability which will give rise to future cash flows), together with any associated deferred tax.

Note 4

Reserves must be audited unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 1985 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)), or where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.

3 Intangible assets (Item 6)

Intangible assets comprise:

(a)

formation expenses to the extent that these are treated as an asset in the firm's accounts;

(b)

goodwill, to the extent that it is treated as an asset in the firm's accounts; and

(c)

other assets treated as intangibles in the firm's accounts.

Intangible assets do not include a deferred acquisition cost asset.

4 Material current year losses (Item 7)

Losses in current year operating figures must be deducted when calculating Tier 1 capital if such losses are material. For this purpose profits and losses must be calculated quarterly or monthly, as appropriate. If this calculation reveals a net loss it shall only be deemed to be material for the purposes of this Table if it exceeds 10 per cent of the firm's Tier 1 capital.

5 Material holdings in credit and financial institutions (Item 8)

Material holdings comprise:

(a)

where the firm holds more than 10 per cent of the equity share capital of the institution, the value of that holding and the amount of any subordinated loans to the institution and the value of holdings in qualifying capital items or qualifying capital instruments issued by the institution;

(b)

in the case of holdings other than those mentioned in (a) above, the value of holdings of equity share capital in, and the amount of subordinated loans made to, such institutions and the value of holdings in qualifying capital items or qualifying capital instruments issued by such institutions to the extent that the total of such holdings and subordinated loans exceeds 10 per cent of the firm'sown funds calculated before the deduction of item 8.

2

6 Long term qualifying subordinated loans (Item 11)

Loans having the characteristics prescribed by IPRU-INV 5.6.1R may be included in item 11, subject to the limits set out in paragraph (1) above.

2

7 Qualifying arrangements (Item 13)

2

2

2

A firm2 may only include qualifying undertakings in its calculation of liquid capital if:

(i)

it maintains liquid capital equivalent to 6/52 of its annual expenditure in a form other than qualifying undertakings; and

(ii)

the total amount of all qualifying undertakings plus qualifying subordinated loans does not exceed the limits set out in paragraph (1)(b) above.

8 Net trading book profits (Item 14)

Unaudited2 profits can be included at item 14.

This Item must not be included in the liquid capital calculation of a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme.

Note 5

Non-trading book interim profits may only be included in Tier 1 of the calculation if they have been independently verified by the firm’s external auditors, unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 1985 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)), or where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.

For this purpose, the external auditor should normally undertake at least the following:

(a)

satisfy himself that the figures forming the basis of the interim profits have been properly extracted from the underlying accounting records;

(b)

review the accounting policies used in calculating the interim profits so as to obtain comfort that they are consistent with those normally adopted by the firm in drawing up its annual financial statements;

(c)

perform analytical review procedures on the results to date, including comparisons of actual performance to date with budget and with the results of prior periods;

(d)

discuss with management the overall performance and financial position of the firm;

(e)

obtain adequate comfort that the implications of current and prospective litigation, all known claims and commitments, changes in business activities and provisions for bad and doubtful debts have been properly taken into account in arriving at the interim profits; and

(f)

follow up problem areas of which the auditors are already aware in the course of auditing the firm’s financial statements.

A firm wishing to include interim profits in Tier 1 capital in a financial return should submit to the FCA with the financial return a verification report signed by its external auditor which states whether the interim results are fairly stated, unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 198 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)), or where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.

Profits on the sale of capital items or arising from other activities which are not directly related to the investment business of the firm may also be included within the calculation of liquid capital, but (unless the firm is exempt as above) only if they can be separately verified by the firm’s auditors. In such a case, such profits can form part of the firm’s Tier 1 capital as profits.

9 Short term qualifying subordinated loans (Item 15)

Loans having the characteristics prescribed by IPRU-INV 5.6.3R may be included in item 15 subject to the limits set out in paragraph (1) above. Tier 2 capital which exceeds the ratios prescribed by paragraph (1)(a) and (b) may be included in item 15 subject to paragraph (1) above.

10 Illiquid assets (Item 16)

Illiquid assets comprise:

(a)

tangible fixed assets.

Note 6

In respect of tangible fixed assets purchased under finance leases the amount to be deducted as an illiquid asset shall be limited to the excess of the asset over the amount of the related liability shown on the balance sheet.

(b)

holdings in, including subordinated loans to, credit or financial institutions which may be included in the own funds of such institutions unless they have been deducted under item 8;

(c)

any investment in undertakings other than credit institutions and other financial institutions where such investments are not readily realisable;

(d)

any deficiency in net assets of a subsidiary;

(e)

deposits not available for repayment within 90 days or less (except for payments in connection with margined futures or options contracts);

Note 7

Where cash is placed on deposit with a maturity of more than 90 days but is repayable on demand subject to the payment of a penalty, then this is not required to be deducted as an illiquid asset but a deduction is required for the amount of the penalty.

(f)

loans, trade and3 other debtors and accruals not falling due to be repaid within 90 days or which are more than one month overdue by reference to the contractual payment date;

(g)

physical stocks (except where subject to the position risk requirement as set out in IPRU-INV 5.11; and

(h)

prepayments to the extent that the period of prepayment exceeds six weeks in the case of a firm subject to the 6/52 expenditure based requirement or thirteen weeks in the case of a firm subject to the 13/52 expenditure based requirement.

(i)

if not otherwise covered, any holding in eligible capital instruments of an insurance undertaking, insurance holding company, or reinsurance undertaking that is a subsidiary or participation. Eligible capital instruments include ordinary share capital, cumulative preference shares, perpetual securities and long-term subordinated loans that are eligible for insurance undertakings under INSPRU 1.

Illiquid assets do not include a defined benefit asset or a deferred acquisition cost asset.

11 Qualifying property (Item 17)

This item comprises the qualifying amount calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.7.1R.

MCOB 5A.5.4GRP
(1) The ESIS can contain the MCD mortgage lender's or MCD mortgage credit intermediary's logo and other 'brand' information, so long as the requirements of MCOB 5A.5 are satisfied.(2) The ESIS can contain page numbers and other references that aid understanding, record keeping and identification of a particular ESIS, such as the date and time it is produced or a unique reference number, provided these do not detract from the content of the ESIS. (3) Firms are reminded of their
MCOB 4.4A.23GRP
Firms are reminded of the general record-keeping requirements in SYSC 9. A firm should keep appropriate records of the disclosures required by this section.
MCOB 6.9.11RRP
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
CASS 5.1.1RRP
(1) CASS 5.1 to CASS 5.6 apply, subject to (2), (3) and CASS 5.1.3 R to CASS 5.1.6 R, to a firm that receives or holds money in the course of or in connection with its insurance distribution activity8.(2) CASS 5.1 to CASS 5.6 do not, subject to (3), apply:(a) to a firm to the extent that it acts in accordance with the client money chapter; or64(b) [deleted]8(c) to an insurance undertaking in respect of its permitted activities; or(d) to a managing agent when acting as such; or(e)
DEPP 4.1.12GRP
The secretariat to the senior staff committee will record and document all disclosures of potential conflicts of interest and the steps taken to manage them.
LR 8.7.4GRP
The FCA will give reasonable notice to a sponsor of requests for meetings or requests for access to a sponsor's documents and records.
EG 19.30.3RP
1It also imposes obligations on registered firms to comply with conduct requirements set out in the Schedule to the MCDO, retain relevant information and to deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner. The FCA also has the power to give directions to a registered firm to secure compliance with the requirements set out in the Schedule. In addition, the FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the framework.
COBS 6.1C.21RRP
A firm must keep a record of:(1) its charging structure;(2) the consultancy charges payable by each employer and each of the employer’s employees; and(3) if the consultancy charge for a particular service has varied materially from that indicated in the firm's charging structure, the reasons for that difference.
CONC 5A.4.9GRP
For the purposes of this chapter, where a lender allows a borrower to make a number of drawdowns of credit (which may be expressed to be possible up to a specified amount of credit) but only with the lender's consent to each respective drawdown, each drawdown is a separate agreement for high-cost short-term credit and, where applicable, each agreement needs to be documented as a separate regulated credit agreement in accordance with the CCA and with the rest of CONC. This chapter
COLL 11.3.13RRP
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that operates, or intends to operate, as a master UCITS must:(1) not enter into a master-feeder agreement or, where applicable, internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R (2) unless it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the arrangements with the feeder UCITS will not unfairly prejudice the interests of any other unitholder or class of unitholders in the master UCITS;(2) consider, in relation to:(a) each
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.