Related provisions for EG 13.10.3
241 - 260 of 490 items.
The appropriate regulator1 may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the appropriate regulator1 will consider whether the conditions in section 138A(4)1 of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate.1111
The FCA3 expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognised body requirements.2 This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FCA3 will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FCA3 will usually arrange meetings
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the IDD7, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors and other senior
(1) 7In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
2This chapter also sets out:5(1) guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a MiFID investment firm6 that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent; and5(2) the FCA’s rules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of:5(a) an FCA registered tied agent by a MiFID investment firm6;5(b) a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative; and5(c) a structured deposit appointed representative.5
The arrangements which grant rights under alternative debentures are similar to the tax definition of arrangements relating to alternative finance investment bonds at section 48A of the Finance Act 2005 (see www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts2007/ukpga_20070011_en_5#pt3-pb9-l1g53). However the purposes of the two provisions are not the same. One of the objectives of the FCA under the Act is consumer protection. Accordingly, secondary legislation made under the Act, like article 77A
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, a requirement in DTR 8 in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If a primary information provider or a person that is applying for approval as a primary information provider has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision
notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices)
in respect of notices that we give under the RCB
Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393
of the Act (Third party rights)
and section 394 of the Act (Access
to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter
is not referred to the Tribunal,
then upon taking the action to which a decision
notice relates,
The Act does not provide a mechanism for appeals to the FCA2 from decisions by recognised bodies in relation to complaints. However, the FCA2 is required by section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) to have arrangements to investigate complaints (called relevant complaints in the Act) which it considers relevant to the question of whether a recognised body should remain recognised as such. This section describes aspects of the FCA's2 arrangements for investigating
Firms, approved persons and conduct rules staff1 have an obligation to be open and co-operative with the FCA (as a result of Principle 11 for Businesses,1 Statement of Principle 4 for Approved Persons and Rule 3 of COCON 2.11). The FCA will make it clear to the person concerned whether it requires them to produce information or answer questions under the Act or whether the provision of answers is purely voluntary. The fact that the person concerned may be a regulated person does
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
Section 236(3) uses the words "the investor would, if he were to participate in the scheme". This is consistent with the fact that the reasonable investor is hypothetical. But applying the test at this early stage makes it clear that there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could base the expectation in section 236(3)(a). And on which he could be satisfied on the matters in section 236(3)(b). In the FCA's view, this requires, for example,
Under article 53 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013, any of the following given or made by the Office of Fair Trading which were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014 have effect as if they had been given or made by the FCA:(1) a direction given under section 60(3) of the CCA (form and content of agreements);(2) a determination made under section 64(4) of the CCA (duty to give notice of cancellation rights) and