Related provisions for SUP 18.1.1B

GEN 4.5.6G01/01/2021

It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.2(3) [deleted]44

GEN 4.5.6AG01/04/2013

4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.

APER 1.1A.1R07/12/2020

1APER applies to FCA-approved persons who are approved to perform a controlled function in SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives).53

APER 1.1A.1AG07/12/2020

[deleted]5

APER 1.1A.6G07/12/2020

[deleted]51333

APER 1.1A.7G07/12/2020

[deleted]5

3

FEES 3.2.1R24/01/2022

A person referred to66 in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R37 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)78 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with 37FCA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification56, or other matter 9as is applicable to it, as set

FEES 3.2.7R28/02/2023

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

Part 1A: Application, notification and vetting fees66 31
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37 by reference to the pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26	(1) Unless (2) or (3)66 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR66 which apply to that application. 66(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: 66(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or 66(b) the application is a limited permission case under FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission 66, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee 66payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 (4) [deleted]66 1 41 80 1 34 34 34 34 34 34 34 41	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) [deleted]56 4
(c) [deleted]66
(d) [deleted]66 27	27 27
(da) Persons making an application or notification in relation to applications set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R: 66(i) authorisation order for or recognition under section 272 of the Act of a collective investment scheme; 66(ii) application for the authorisation of an AIF as an LTIF; 68 66(v) an AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation; and68 66(vi) an applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM. 58 36 66 66	Category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 2R66 36	On or before the date the application or notification66 is made 36
(e) Any applicant making an application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R - Other FCA application fees:66 66(i) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body; 66(ii) applicant to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges; 66(iii) any applicant for recognition as an accredited body; 66(iv) any applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company; 66(v) an application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vi) an application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation; 66(vii) an application for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations; 66(viii) an application for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations; 66(ix) an application for connection to the market data processor system to provide reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR; 66(x) an application to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MAR 10; 66(xi) an application for authorisation as a third party verifier. 27 27 27	Pricing category applicable to the application set out in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 27 27	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 14R66 28
28(ea) [deleted]66 56 56
(eb) [deleted]66 28
(f) Persons making an application referred to in FEES 3 Annex 15R – Transaction fees:66 66(i) any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order; 66(ii) a transferor in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme; 66(iii) an issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond; 66(iv) an issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4D; 66(v) an applicant for FCA permission for: 66i. an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act; or 66ii. money paid or property transferred under the agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act. (vi) 67Applications in respect of controlled functions under the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SMCR), including applications by principal firms in respect of SMCR functions in appointed representatives.	Pricing category applicable to the application or notification set out in FEES 3 Annex 15R.66	As specified in FEES 3 Annex 15R66
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:62 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or62 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 62 56 17 78 17 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
(ga) [deleted]52 26 35 35 35
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 78 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) [deleted]66
(o) [deleted]65 1 1 2 2 29 5 29 78 29 29 5 56 78 29 29 29 5 5 5 78 29 29 5 78 29 29 29 78 29 29 5	[deleted]65 5 2 5 5 5 1 2 5 1 5 5 5 5 1 5 78 5 78 5 5 2 56	[deleted]65 2 78 29 29 78 29 29 78 2 29
(oa) [deleted]65 29 37 37 37 37 58 56 37 37 37 37 58 37 37	[deleted]65 37	[deleted]65 37 37 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission, as referred to in FEES 3 Annex 16R66, whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraphs 64(zza)52 or (zzh) 64 of this table 26	(1) As specified in FEES 3 Annex 1R-FEES 3 Annex 14R66 (2) Subject to (3) below, if the new business of the firm would fall within more than one pricing category in FEES 3 Annex 1AR, the fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application.66 (2A) [deleted]66 (3) [deleted]66 (3A) [deleted]66 (3B) [deleted]66 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the highest of:66 66(i) the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR; (ii) the amount payable in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 16R; (3D) [deleted]66 (4) [deleted]66 [deleted]66 30 80 44 41 30 80 80 1 1 1 78 78 37 78 37 80 80 37 1 1 37 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 37 30 37 37 37 30 37 11 11 37 37 30 37 30 80 41 11 78 1 44 44 44	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 79 13 79 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
(s) [deleted]66 5	77 77 37 59 37 59 77 77 37 77 37	37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
(y) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Payment Services Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration.66 8	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R66. 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(ya) [deleted]66 47	47	47
(z) [deleted]66 47
(za) [deleted]66 47
(zb) [deleted]66 47	50 50 47 50 50 47 50 47 47 47 47 47 50 50
(zc) [deleted]66 47	47 47 47 47 47 47
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]78 78	78	9 16 78
(zg) A person who makes an application or notification to the FCA under the Electronic Money Regulations, including an application for variation of authorisation or registration66. 16	The fee payable is that in the highest pricing category applicable to the application or notification as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.66	On or before the date the application is made.
(zh) [deleted]66 16
(zi) [deleted]66 16 14
(zj) [deleted]66 16	50 50
(zk) [deleted]66 16
(zl) [deleted]66 15		18
(zm) [deleted]66 18	41 41
(zn) [deleted]66 18	41 41	21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1)) or 4.1.3R69; or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1) or 4.1.5R69.	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69 recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R or 4.5.1R69.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
(zs) [deleted]66 30 31	31 30 31 31
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80	On or before the application is made.80
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(zw) [deleted]66 45 63 63 49 63
(zx) [deleted]66 46	63
(zy) [deleted]66 46 49 56	56 63
(zz) [deleted]66 51
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator.	The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1AR.66 Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category).	On the date the application is made.
(zzb) [deleted]66 52
(zzc) [deleted]66 52
54(zzd) applications for claims management companies	The fee applicable to the application as set out in paragraph CMC of Part 2 of FEES 3 Annex 1R.66 Firms which already have Part 4A permissions and are applying to vary their permissions will pay 50% of66 the relevant fee.	On the date the application is made.
(zze) [deleted]66 55
61(zzf) UK-based applicants for registration as a trade repository; a securitisation repository, or a third country applicant seeking recognition as a trade repository.	5,000 Applicants for registration as a trade repository who already hold registration as a securitisation repository, or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee. Applicants for registration as a trade repository to carry on activity for the purposes of UK SFTR who already hold registration as a trade repository under EMIR or vice versa, will receive a 50% discount on the relevant application fee.	On the date the application is made.
61(zzg) UK-based applicants for registration as a credit rating agency or a third country applicant seeking certification as a credit rating agency.	The fee set out in FEES 3 Annex 13R.	On the date the application is made.
64(zzh) Permission for (1) carrying on funeral plan distribution; (2) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider; or (3) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider and entering as provider into a funeral plan contract.	(1) The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R part 3A which apply to that application, subject to (2) and (3) below. (2) Unless (3) below applies, where an applicant was carrying out any of the activities referred to in (zzh)(1)-(3) on 1 September 2021, and makes an application for permission for any of those activities after 1 November 2021, the application fees shall be: (a) £3,500 for (zzh)(1) or zzh(2); (b) £14,000 for (zzh)(3). (3) If an applicant which already has any of the permissions referred to in (zzh) applies to vary its permission, the application fees shall be: (a) £500 for (zzh)(1); (b) £1,250 for (zzh)(2); and (c) £5,000 for (zzh)(3).	On or before the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation 60, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SYSC 4.5.7R10/12/2018

[deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.2.3R]3

SYSC 4.5.13G27/09/2019

(1) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.4.14G(1)4]3(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.3.5G]3

FEES 4.3.3R03/01/2018

The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers, CBTL firms,20fee-paying electronic money issuers and data reporting services providers20) 20 calculated as follows:107(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR1727 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;27(2) for each of the applicable27 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to

FEES 4.3.6R23/07/2021

(1) [deleted]17272712112727111127(1A) [deleted] 1727(1B) [deleted] 1727(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised

FEES 4.3.7R01/03/2016

A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and26(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.

FEES 4.3.9G01/03/2016

If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA26 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding

FEES 4.3.10G01/03/2016

If a firm pays its fees through an agent outside the scope of FEES 4.3.7 R, the firm is responsible for ensuring that the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)26 is informed that the sum being paid is for that firm's periodic fees.26

SUP 10C.12.1G09/12/2019

(1) SUP 10C.12 describes the regime for conditional and time-limited approvals.(2) In particular, SUP 10C.12 sets out the FCA's policies on giving approval under section 59 subject to conditions or for a limited period only, as required by section 63ZD of the Act (Statement of policy relating to conditional approval and variation).(3) (In the case of a PRA-authorised person) the3 policies described in SUP 10C.12 also apply when the FCA is considering whether to give its consent

CREDS 8.3.3G07/03/2016

(1) The effect of section 59 of the Act is that if a person is to perform certain functions (which are known as controlled functions) for a credit union, the credit union should first apply for approval to:2(a) the FCA (if the controlled function is specified by the FCA in its rules); or2(b) the PRA (if the controlled function is specified by the PRA in its rules).2(2) The firm should not allow the person to perform that function until the firm receives the approval.2(3) A person

CREDS 8.3.5G10/12/2018

(1) The controlled functions specified by the FCA for credit unions and other SMCR firms3 can be found in the table in SUP 10C.4.3R.2 The table in SUP 10C Annex 1 3.2R sets out which of them apply to credit unions.311(2) The controlled functions specified by the PRA for credit unions and other SMCR firms3 can be found in the PRA’s Rulebook. They are not summarised in the Handbook.2

CREDS 8.3.6G07/03/2016

2(1) The FCA and the PRA have specified different functions.2(2) Sometimes a person’s job description means that they are performing an FCA controlled function and a PRA controlled function at the same time for the same firm. SUP 10C.9 has arrangements that reduce the need for the same person to be approved by both the FCA and the PRA.2

SYSC 4.6.20R10/12/2018

[deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.6.5R]3

SYSC 4.6.23G10/12/2018

[deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.6.8G]33

COND 2.7.4G01/04/2013

1Paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the business model threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.

COND 2.7.5G01/04/2013

1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.

SYSC 18.3.1R07/09/2016

(1) A firm must establish, implement and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for the disclosure of reportable concerns by whistleblowers.(2) The arrangements in (1) must at least:(a) be able effectively to handle disclosures of reportable concerns including: (i) where the whistleblower has requested confidentiality or has chosen not to reveal their identity; and(ii) allowing for disclosures to be made through a range of communication methods; (b) ensure the effective

SYSC 18.3.6R10/12/2018

This rule applies to an EEA SMCR banking firm3 and a third-country SMCR banking firm3.2(1) A person subject to this rule (‘P’) 2must, in the manner described in (2), communicate to its UK-based employees that they may disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or the FCA and the methods for doing so. P 2must make clear that:(a) reporting to the PRA or to the FCA is not conditional on a report first being made using P’s 2internal arrangements; (b) it is possible to report using P’s

SYSC 18.3.6AG01/01/2021

[deleted]4

COBS 20.2.41BG01/04/2013

(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which

COBS 20.2.61G28/03/2014

(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate

APER 4.4.1AG07/03/2016

3The Statement of Principle 4 (see APER 2.1A.3 R1) is in the following terms: "An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice."1

APER 4.4.2AG07/03/2016

3For the purpose of this Statement of Principle, regulators in addition to the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible. This may include an exchange or an oversea

APER 4.4.4G07/12/2020

1Failing to report promptly in accordance with his APER employer2 internal procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned), information which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned), whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 G. The regulator concerned is:(1) the FCA if it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance to it;3(2) the PRA if it would be reasonable

SUP 10C.15.1G07/03/2016

The purpose of this section is to: (1) summarise the main forms and other documents used in this chapter; and(2) explain how they should be submitted to the FCA.

SUP 10C.15.11R10/12/2018

(1) An application or submission by a firm made under this rule must be made by submitting the form or document online at fca.org.uk using the FCA's and PRA'sonline notification and application system6.(2) A firm must use the version of the form or document made available on the electronic system referred to in (1). If the form or document is included in an Annex to this chapter, that electronic version is based on the version found in the applicable Annex to this chapter 6(which

SUP 10C.15.12G07/03/2016

If the information technology systems used by the FCA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA and PRA will endeavour to publish a notice on their websites confirming that:(1) online submission is unavailable; and(2) the alternative methods of submission in SUP 10C.15.14R applies.

SUP 4.3.8G07/03/2016

The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11

SUP 4.3.11R07/03/2016

A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010

EG 4.14.101/03/2016

1In some cases, it may be appropriate for both the FCA and the PRA to pursue investigations into different aspects of the same misconduct (see EG 2.5.2).

EG 4.14.231/01/2017

1In such cases, the guidance contained in this chapter will apply to the FCA’s investigation and the FCA will attempt to ensure that the subject of the investigation is not prejudiced or unduly inconvenienced by the fact that there are two investigating authorities. The FCA and PRA investigation teams will keep each other and their respective supervisory teams informed about the progress of the investigation. Discussions with the firm or individual under investigation should normally

EG 4.14.331/01/2017

2Both the FCA and the PRA will seek to ensure that, as far as possible, their respective processes (whether for contested or settlement decision-making) occur in a coordinated and timely manner in a joint investigation. For example, the regulators will, where appropriate, endeavour to settle a joint investigation into a relevant firm or individual simultaneously.

SUP 8.8.1G01/04/2013

The appropriate regulator1 may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the appropriate regulator1 will consider whether the conditions in section 138A(4)1 of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate.1111

SUP 8.8.2G01/04/2013

If the appropriate regulator1 proposes to revoke a waiver, or revokes a waiver with immediate effect, it will:1(1) give the firm written notice either of its proposal, or of its action, giving reasons;(2) state in the notice a reasonable period (usually 28 days) within which the firm can make representations about the proposal or action; if a firm wants to make oral representations, it should inform the appropriate regulator1 as quickly as possible , specify who will make the

SUP 8.8.3G01/04/2013

If the waiver that has been revoked has previously been published, the appropriate regulator1 will publish the revocation unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so, having regard to any representations made by the firm.1

COND 2.3.1DG01/04/2013

6Paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the effective supervision threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.

COND 2.3.1EG01/04/2013

6The guidance in COND 2.3 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2C of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 of the Act.

COND 2.3.3G01/04/2013

In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to

Related provisions for SUP 18.1.1B

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