Related provisions for SYSC 22.5.15
281 - 300 of 372 items.
A firm should in a financial promotion or in a communication with a customer:(1) make clear, to the extent an average customer of the firm would understand, the nature of the service that the firm provides; [Note: paragraphs 3.7e and 4.8b of CBG](2) indicate to the customer in a prominent way the existence and nature3 of any financial arrangements with a lender that might impact upon the firm's impartiality in promoting or recommending a credit1 product to the3customer or which
(1) 20[deleted] [Editor’s note: This provision now appears at SUP 12.7.7AR.]34415881542(1A) 20[deleted] [Editor’s note: This provision now appears at SUP 12.7.7BR.]713137(1B) 20[deleted] [Editor’s note: This provision now appears at SUP 12.7.7CR.]11(2) Except where (4) applies, where 20there is a change in any of the information provided to the FCA under SUP 12.7.1R, a firm must complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4R8 (Appointed representative or tied agent
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Payment Services Regulations. The Payment Services Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations on payment service providers to provide users with a range of information and various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of payment service users and providers.
1The FCA recognises that preliminary findings letters serve a very useful purpose in focussing decision making on the contentious issues in the case. This in turn makes for better quality and more efficient decision making. However, there are exceptional circumstances in which the FCA may decide it is not appropriate to send out a preliminary findings letter. This includes: (1) where the subject consents to not receiving a preliminary findings letter; or (2) where it is not practicable
(1) Subject to (1A), (3), and (4),10 the5instrument constituting the fund8 and the prospectus of an authorised fund which has at least one valuation point on each business day10 may permit deferral of redemptions at a valuation point to the next valuation point where the requested redemptions exceed 10%, or some other reasonable proportion disclosed in the prospectus, of the authorised fund's value.58(1A) 5Subject to (3) the instrument constituting the fund8 and the prospectus
713If a complaint relates to the sale of a payment protection contract, knowledge by the complainant that there was a problem with the sale of the payment protection contract generally (for example where there has been a rejection of a claim on the grounds of ineligibility or exclusion, or the complainant has received a customer contact letter explaining that they may have been mis-sold) would not in itself ordinarily be sufficient to establish for the purposes of the three-year
A firm need not provide an ESIS:(1) in relation to a direct deal; (2) if the consumer refuses to disclose key information (for example, in a telephone conversation, his name or a communication address) or where the consumer is not interested in pursuing the enquiry; or(3) if the firm does not wish to do business with the consumer.
Subject to MCOB 14.1.5R and MCOB 14.1.7R: (1) MCD article 3(1)(b) creditors and MCD article 3(1)(b) credit intermediaries must comply with the following provisions in MCOB. These provisions apply with such changes as are necessary to apply them to MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreements and activity undertaken in relation to those agreements (see MCOB 14.1.4G):(a) MCOB 1.2.19G (identifying MCD credit agreements);(b) MCOB 2.3 (inducements);(c) MCOB 2.5A (the customer’s best interests);(d)
4Firms are reminded of:(1) the guidance in CONC 3.3.10G(6) to (8) in relation to debt solutions; and(2) the rule in CONC 8.2.4R which requires firms to notify the customer that free debt counselling, debt adjusting and providing of credit information services is available and that the customer can find out more by contacting MoneyHelper7.
1Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an MTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the MTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that MTF.[Note: article 18(8)4 of MiFID]
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
(1) When a firm enters into a current account agreement where:(a) there is a possibility that the account-holder may be allowed to overdraw on the current account without a pre-arranged overdraft or exceed a pre-arranged overdraft limit; and (b) if the account-holder did so, this would be a regulated credit agreement;the current account agreement must contain the information in (2) and (3).[Note: section 74A(1) of CCA](2) The information required by (1) is:(a) the rate of interest
(1) Where a financial instrument of an issuer is admitted to trading on one SME growth market, the financial instrument must not be traded on another SME growth market unless the issuer has been informed and has not objected. (2) In the case of (1), the issuer shall not be subject to any obligation relating to corporate governance or initial, ongoing or ad hoc disclosure with regard to the latter SME growth market.[Note: article 33(7) of MiFID]
For a scheme referred to in LR 9.4.2R (2), the following information must be disclosed in the first annual report published by the listed company after the date on which the relevant individual becomes eligible to participate in the arrangement:(1) all of the information prescribed in LR 13.8.11 R;(2) the name of the sole participant;(3) the date on which the participant first became eligible to participate in the arrangement;(4) an explanation of why the circumstances in which