Related provisions for SYSC 22.5.13
61 - 80 of 372 items.
(1) For the authorised fund manager's periodic charge or for payments out of scheme property to the investment adviser, the prospectus may permit a payment based on a comparison of one or more aspects of the scheme property or price in comparison with fluctuations in the value or price of property of any description or index or other factor designated for the purpose (a "performance fee").(2) Any performance fee should be specified in the appropriate manner in the prospectus and
(1) Any payment as a result of effecting transactions for the authorised fund should be made from the capital property of the scheme.(2) Other than the payments in (1), all other payments should be made from income property in the first instance but may be transferred to the capital account in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R (1) (Allocation of payments to income or capital).(3) For payments transferred to the capital property of the scheme in accordance with (2), the prospectus
Except as provided in COLL 6.3.5DR, an12affected person is not liable to account to another affected person or to the unitholders of any scheme for any profits or benefits it makes or receives that are made or derived from or in connection with:(1) dealings in the units of a scheme; or(2) any transaction in scheme property; or(3) the supply of services to the scheme;where disclosure of the non-accountability has been made in the prospectus of the scheme.
(1) A3firm must arrange for orderly records to be created and kept that are sufficient to enable it to comply with the requirements of this chapter.12(2) This rule only applies to records in relation to the following questions in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements): (a) question (E) (fit and proper); and (b) question (F) (disciplinary action).
(1) SYSC 22.9.1R applies to keeping records created before the date this chapter came into force as well as ones created afterwards.(2) A3firm does not breach the requirements of this chapter by failing to include something in a reference or by failing to have records2 because it destroyed the relevant records before the date this chapter came into force in accordance with the record keeping requirements applicable to it at the time of destruction.2(3) (1) also applies to records
1Where the approved person is, or is one of the approved persons who is, responsible within the APER employer2 for reporting matters to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G), failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned of information of which they are aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned, whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3G.
1Failing
without good reason to:(1) inform
a regulator of information of which the approved
person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;(2) attend
an interview or answer questions put by a regulator, despite a request or
demand having been made;(3) supply
a regulator with appropriate documents or
information when requested or required to do so and within the time limits
attaching to that request or requirement;falls within APER 4.4.3 G.
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FCA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
(1) Information that is disclosed in a third country6 which may be of importance to the public in the United Kingdom6 must be disclosed in accordance with the provisions set out in DTR 6.2 and DTR 6.3. (2) Paragraph (1) applies additionally to information that is not regulated information.[Note: article 23(3) of the TD]
(1) There are certain additional disclosure requirements laid down by the rules which implemented8 the Distance Marketing Directive that will have to be provided by a mortgage intermediary,6 a home purchase intermediary and a SRB intermediary64 to a consumer5 prior to the conclusion of a distance mortgage mediation contract,66 a distance home purchase mediation contract4 or a distance regulated sale and rent back mediation contract.6 The purpose of this section, MCOB 4.5, is to
If the initial contact7 is with a consumer5 with a view to concluding a distance mortgage mediation contract,6 a distance home purchase mediation contract or a distance regulated sale and rent back mediation contract6,4 a firm must:7546(1) in addition to initial disclosure information and any other required information, provide the consumer5 with the information in MCOB 4 Annex 3 in a durable medium in good time before the conclusion of the distance mortgage mediation contract,6distance
(1) The information in MCOB 4 Annex 3 will be provided in 'good time' for the purposes of MCOB 4.5.2 R (1), if provided in sufficient time to enable the customer to consider properly the services on offer.(2) An example of the circumstances in which MCOB 4.5.2 R (4) or (5) may apply is given in MCOB 4.4.4 G. If the initial disclosure document and accompanying information (including that in MCOB 4 Annex 3) was previously provided to a customer and continues to be appropriate, there
(1) An issuer'ssecurities must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FCA in writing without delay if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listed securities to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listed securities; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listed securities will be cancelled or suspended.
An issuer that is not already required to comply with the obligations under articles 17 and 18 of the Market Abuse Regulation4 must comply with those obligations4 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of articles 17 and 18 of the Market Abuse Regulation4 and the transparency rules, subject to article 22 of the Market Abuse Regulation4.1
If a firm is found to have provided support to a securitisation it will be required to: (1) hold capital resources against all of the securitised exposures associated with the securitisation transaction as if they had not been securitised; and(2) disclose publicly in a timely fashion: (a) where it has provided such support; and(b) the regulatory capital impact of doing so.
The ECAI rating of a securitisation position must, at a minimum, comply with the following:(1) there must be no mismatch between the types of payments reflected in the credit assessment and the types of payment to which the firm is entitled under the contract giving rise to the securitisation position in question;(2) the rating must be publicly available to the market; and(3) the rating must not be based, or partly based, on support provided by the firm itself.
Credit assessments may only be treated as publicly available under MIPRU 4.2BA.35R (2) if they have been published in a publicly accessible forum and they are included in the ECAI's transition matrix; a rating that is only made available to a limited number of entities may not be treated as publicly available.
The information that the introducer must disclose to the borrower prior to making the introduction is, where relevant:(1) that he is a member of the same group as the person (N) to whom the borrower is introduced;(2) details of any payment which he will receive from N, by way of fee or commission, for introducing the borrower to N; and(3) an indication of any other reward or advantage arising out of his introducing to N.
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 4.5.14G (3) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees and this and other relevant information may be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower, as appropriate.
If an originator or sponsor fails to comply with BIPRU 9.6.1 R or BIPRU 9.6.1A R1 in respect of a securitisation, it must:(1) hold capital against all of the securitised exposures associated with the securitisation transaction as if they had not been securitised; and(2) disclose publicly:(a) that it has provided non-contractual support;1 and(b) the regulatory capital impact of doing so.[Note: BCD Article 101(2)]
(1) Securitisation documentation should make clear, where applicable, that any repurchase of securitised exposures or securitisation positions by the originator or sponsor beyond its contractual obligations is not mandatory and may only be made at fair market value. In general, any such repurchase should be subject to a firm's credit review and approval process, which should be adequate to ensure that the repurchase complies with BIPRU 9.6.1 R.(2) If an originator or sponsor repurchases
(1) If a member of the RDC has a potential conflict of interest in any matter in which he is asked to participate he will disclose the conflict to the RDC Office, and disclose it:(a) in the case of the Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(b) in the case of a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman of the RDC, or if he is unavailable to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(c) in the case of any other member, to the Chairman or
If the RDC decides that the FCA1 should give a warning notice4: 1(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice4and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions;(3) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the notice to be given; and(4) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the disclosure of the substantive communications between the RDC
4For the purposes of MCOB 4.4A.2R (1) there is one relevant market for equity release transactions. Accordingly, a firm offering a customer only lifetime mortgages or only home reversion plans must include in its disclosure under MCOB 4.4A.1R (1) that it is limited in that regard in the range of products that it can offer to the customer.
4In the light of MCOB 8.3.2B R, a firm may wish to consider using a sentence appropriate to the circumstances, along the following lines: •“We offer a comprehensive range of equity release products from across the market.” •“We sell home reversion plans only and not lifetime mortgages, though we will consider all home reversion plans available in the market.”
Table of modified cross-references to other rules: This table belongs to MCOB 8.3.1 R.
Subject |
Rule or guidance |
Reference in rule or guidance |
To be read as a reference to: |
Additional disclosure for distance mortgage mediation contracts |
MCOB 4.5 |
Firms will need to consider the implications of data protection legislation3 under which personal data that a firm, as data controller, holds about its customer cannot be disclosed to a third party without their3 consent. In practice the firm is likely to need the SRB agreement seller's consent to disclosing the matters covered by MCOB 6.9.8 R to the relevant mortgage lender or home purchase provider.
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
(1) FCA3staff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which they are4
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:3(-1) 5oral representations will not be permitted unless there are exceptional circumstances (DEPP 2.3.1A); (1) in a case where
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must provide the management company of its feeder UCITS with all documents and information necessary for the latter to meet its regulatory obligations under the provisions of COLL applicable in respect of a UCITS scheme under this chapter4.[Note: article 60(1) first paragraph first sentence of the UCITS Directive]
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the fund,2 to:2(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the FCA4;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive]
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that operates, or intends to operate, as a master UCITS must:(1) not enter into a master-feeder agreement or, where applicable, internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R (2) unless it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the arrangements with the feeder UCITS will not unfairly prejudice the interests of any other unitholder or class of unitholders in the master UCITS;(2) consider, in relation to:(a) each
(1) A firm must provide appropriate information in a comprehensible form to a client about:(a) the firm and its services;(b) designated investments and proposed investment strategies; including appropriate guidance on and warnings of the risks associated with investments in those designated investments or in respect of particular investment strategies;(c) execution venues; and(d) costs and associated charges;so that the client is reasonably able to understand the nature and risks
3A firm, other than a venture capital firm, which is managing investments for a professional client that is not a natural person must disclose clearly on its website, or if it does not have a website in another accessible form:(1) the nature of its commitment to the Financial Reporting Council’s Stewardship Code; or(2) where it does not commit to the Code, its alternative investment strategy.
A company with, or applying for, a premium listing of its securities11 must appoint a sponsor on each occasion that it:45(1) is required to submit any of the following documents to the FCA in connection with6 an application for admission of securities115 to premium listing6:66(a) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus13; or671(b) [deleted]126(c) a summary document as required by article 1(5)(j) of the Prospectus Regulation13; or6(d) listing particulars referred to in LR 15.3.3
If a company with a premium listing6 is proposing to enter into a transaction which due to its size or nature could amount to a class 1 transaction or a reverse takeover it must obtain the guidance of a sponsor to assess the application of the listing rules, the6disclosure requirements10 and the 6transparency rules.3263
3Failing
to inform: (1) a customer; or(2) his APER employer4 (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his APER employer4 under SUP 4 Actuaries)1);1of material information in circumstances where they were aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information, and of the fact that they should provide it, falls within APER 4.2.2G.
3Behaviour
of the type referred to in APER 4.2.3 G includes, but is not limited to:(1) failing
to explain the risks of an investment to
a customer;(2) failing
to disclose to a customer details
of the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(3) mismarking
trading positions;(4) providing
inaccurate or inadequate information to a APER employer4,
its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his APER employer4 under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1;1(5) failing
to disclose dealings where