Related provisions for SUP 15.3.14B

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

GEN 1.3.2RRP
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
MAR 7A.4.4RRP
A firm must immediately notify the FCA2 if it is providing DEA services.2 [Note: article 17(5) of MiFID and MiFID RTS 6 specifying the organisational requirements of investment firms providing direct electronic access]
LR 15.4.28RRP
(1) 5A closed-ended investment fund is not required to comply with LR 9.2.23 R in so far as it relates to LR 9.2.2A R, LR 9.2.2E R and LR 9.2.2F R.(2) A closed-ended investment fund is not required to comply with LR 9.2.24 R to LR 9.2.25 R.
LR 20.4.6GRP
An issuer, whose miscellaneous securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules), DTR 6 (Access to information) and DTR 7 (Corporate governance).
MAR 10.2.3GRP
(1) 1Regulation 17 of the MiFI Regulations regulates the position limit exemption applicable to positions in a commodity derivative held by or on behalf of a non-financial entity which are objectively measurable as reducing risks directly relating to the commercial activity of that non-financial entity, and which is approved by the FCA in accordance with the relevant criteria and procedures. Regulation 17(1) imposes an obligation on the FCA to disregard such positions, when calculating
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.76

3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for a RAP) auction platform,7 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products which it operates or plans to operate.76

635443

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks.

5

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5.

5

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached.

5

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for a RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status7.

63

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

5

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

5

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
COLL 12.1.3GRP
Where an authorised fund manager wishes to market the units of a UCITS scheme it operates in a Host State, without establishing a branch or pursuing any other activities in that State, a management company passport is not required for those marketing activities. A UCITS marketing notification should be made for the relevant UCITS scheme (see COLL 12.4 (UCITS product passport) in order to access the market of the Host State. The marketing must be carried on in conformity with the
APER 4.4.1AGRP
3The Statement of Principle 4 (see APER 2.1A.3 R1) is in the following terms: "An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice."1
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A firm3 assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a firm3 should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person might not be fit and proper before determining
DTR 5.2.5RRP
(1) A person who is required to make a notification may, without affecting their responsibility, appoint another person to make the notification on his behalf.(2) Where two or more persons are required to make a notification such persons may, without affecting their responsibility, arrange for a single notification to be made.[Note: article 8(3) of the TD implementing Directive.]
REC 2.6.6UKRP

(1)7

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that the [UK RIE] must not exercise its power to suspend or remove from trading on a trading venue operated by it any financial instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the financial markets.

7(2)

Where the [UK RIE] suspends or removes any financial instrument from trading on a trading venue it operates it must also suspend or remove from trading on that venue any derivative that relates to or is referenced to that financial instrument where that is required to support the objectives of the suspension or removal of trading of that financial instrument.

7(3)

Where the [UK RIE] suspends or removes any financial instrument from trading on a trading venue it operates, including any derivative in accordance with sub-paragraph (2), it must make that decision public and notify the FCA.

7(4)

Where following a decision made under sub-paragraph (2) the [UK RIE] lifts a suspension or re-admits any financial instrument to trading on a trading venue it operates, including any derivative suspended or removed from trading in accordance with that sub-paragraph , it must make that decision public and notify the FCA.

[Note: MiFID RTS 18 contains requirements on the suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading]7
LR 3.4.5RRP
11If confirmation of the number of securities to be issued pursuant to a board resolution cannot be submitted to the FCA by the deadline set out in LR 3.4.4 R or, the number of securities to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.4.4 R, written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued or admitted must be provided to the FCA by the applicant at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.
LR 13.4.1RRP
A class 1 circular must also include the following information:(1) the information given in the notification (see LR 10.4.1R);(2) the information required by LR 13 Annex 1;(3) the information required by LR 13.5 (if applicable); and(4) a declaration by the issuer and2 its directors in the following form (with appropriate modifications):"The [issuer] and the2 directors of [the issuer2], whose names appear on page [ ], accept responsibility for the information contained in this
IPRU-INV 2.1.2RRP
(1) An authorised professional firm of a kind falling within (2) must comply with such of IPRU-INV 3, 53 or 13 which in accordance with IPRU-INV 2.1.4R, most appropriately correlates to the type and scale of the business which it conducts. (2) The type of authorised professional firm to which (1) applies is one:(a) [deleted]3(b) which acts as a market maker; (c) which acts as a stabilising manager; (da) which acts as a small authorised UK
IPRU-INV 5.6.7RRP
A firm wishing to include a qualifying subordinated loan in its calculation of liquid capital must:(a) provide the FCA with a copy of the agreement not less than 10 business days before the loan is to be made; and(b) certify to the FCA that the loan agreement complies with the FCA'sprescribed subordinated loan agreement.
CASS 5.6.5RRP
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm; or(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may be) of the Act; or(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FCA, in accordance with CASS 5.5.77 R1, that it is unable correctly to identify and allocate in its records
SUP 10C.15.3GRP

Table: FCA approved persons forms and other documents

1Form or other document

Purpose

Handbook requirement

The6 relevant Form A

SUP 10C Annex 3D6

Application to perform designated senior management functions6

SUP 10C.10.8D

Form B

SUP 10C Annex 4R6

Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the senior managers8 regime

SUP 10C.10.36R

Notice to withdraw an application to vary an approval under the senior managers regime6

SUP 10C.13.15R

Form C

SUP 10C Annex 5R6

Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions

SUP 10C.14.5R

Form D

SUP 10C Annex 6R6

Notification of changes in personal information or application details or functions

SUP 10C.14.13R

SUP 10C.14.15R

Notification about fitness or of breach of conduct rules

SUP 10C.14.18R

SUP 10C.14.22R

Form E

SUP 10C Annex 7D6

Internal transfer of an approved person

SUP 10C.10.9D

Form I

SUP 10C Annex 8D6

Application to vary a conditional approval 6

SUP 10C.13.6D

Form J

SUP 10C Annex 9D6

Notification of significant change to a statement of responsibilities

SUP 10C.11

Relevant3statement of responsibilities

2

SUP 10C Annex 10D6

SUP 10C.11

4MiFID Article 4 SMR Information Form

SUP 10C Annex 11D6

SUP 10C.10.9BD6

4Annex III template

https://www.fca.org.uk/publication/forms/mifid-changes-management-body-form.docx

As required by the MiFID authorisation and management body change notification ITS6

SUP 10C.10.9AG and SUP 10C.14.6AG

[Note: Some of these forms are also used for the purposes of SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives)]86
COLL 8.1.5GRP
Details of the application procedures in respect of qualified investor schemes are contained in COLL 2.1 (Authorised fund applications). COLLG provides details on how notifications may be made to the FCA.
BIPRU 9.3.8RRP
1An originator must notify the appropriate regulator that it is relying on the deemed transfer of significant credit risk under BIPRU 9.3.7R within a reasonable period before or after a relevant transfer, not being later than one month after the date of the transfer. The notification must include the following information: (1) the risk weighted exposure amount of the securitised exposures and retained securitisation positions; (2) the exposure value of the securitised exposures
SUP 3.3.2RRP
A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 3.1) must:(1) appoint an auditor;(2) notify the appropriate regulator, without delay, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 34 (Notification to amend firm details5 form), in accordance with the instructions on the form, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;24(3) appoint an auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of auditor which has arisen; (4) ensure that the replacement