Related provisions for DTR 8.4.17
81 - 100 of 303 items.
A firm in relation to a customer with whom it has entered into a debt management plan must: (1) maintain contact with the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](2) regularly monitor and review the financial position and circumstances of the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](3) adapt the debt management plan to take into account relevant changes in the financial position and circumstances of the customer;[Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](4) inform the customer without delay
(1) Evidence that there may have been a material change in a customer's financial circumstances is likely to include where a customer who has not previously missed payments under a debt management plan misses such payments. [Note: paragraph 3.45ci of DMG](2) Where the firm informs a customer of the outcome of a review of a debt management plan, it should seek to discuss with the customer any changes to the plan or to the firm's service at the earliest reasonably opportunity. [Note:
(1) A firm may have concluded that an employee is unfit or has breached COCON or APER (as described in questions (E) to (F) of Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements)). However the firm may consider that the disclosure is incomplete without including mitigating circumstances.(2) For example, if the firm is reporting a breach of COCON it may consider that the breach is very uncharacteristic of the employee
(1) If a firm has taken disciplinary action of the type referred to in question (F) in Part One of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements) against an employee and is asked to give a reference about that employee, the firm should (if it has not already done so) consider whether the basis on which it took that action amounts to a breach of any individual conduct requirements covered by question (F). (2) If the firm decides
(1) A listed company must present all financial information that is disclosed in a class 1 circular in a form that is consistent with the accounting policies adopted in its own latest annual consolidated accounts.(2) The requirement set out in (1) does not apply when financial information is presented in accordance with:22(a) DTR 4.2.6 R, in relation only to financial information for the listed company presented for periods after the end of its last published annual accounts;
In complying with LR 13.5.6 R a listed company should:(1) state whether the financial information was extracted from accounts, internal financial accounting records, internal management accounting records, an external or other source;(2) state whether financial information that was extracted from audited accounts was extracted without material adjustment; and(3) indicate which aspects of the financial information relate to:(a) historical financial information;(b) forecast or estimated
(1) 2In the case of a class 1 disposal, a financial information table must include for the target:(a) the last annual consolidated balance sheet; (b) the consolidated income statements for the last three years drawn up to at least the level of profit or loss for the period; and(c) the consolidated balance sheet and consolidated income statement (drawn up to at least the level of profit or loss for the period) at the issuer's interim balance sheet date if the issuer has published
23A relevant benefit derived from a corporate event may only be brought to account if the firm is able to demonstrate, with written records created at the time of the advice, that:(1) The firm foresaw the prospect of the event and the benefit;(2) The firm's advice included a statement recommending the particular policy because of the possibility of the benefit in question; and(3) The statement was a material factor in the context of the advice and the decision to invest.
23If a firm considers that it can meet this requirement, the firm should by letter explain clearly to the complainant the reasons why it proposes that the benefit should not be treated as a windfall and should be taken into account. The firm should provide the complainant with copies of the relevant documents.
(1) 1A firm must ensure that every prime brokerage agreement that includes its right to use safe custody assets for its own account includes a disclosure annex.(2) A firm must ensure that the disclosure annex sets out a summary of the key provisions within the prime brokerage agreement permitting the use of safe custody assets, including:(a) the contractual limit, if any, on the safe custody assets which a prime brokerage firm is permitted to use;(b) all related contractual definitions
(1) Principle 10 (Clients’ assets) requires a firm to arrange adequate protection for client's assets when it is responsible for them. As part of these protections, the custody rules require a firm to take appropriate steps to protect safe custody assets for which it is responsible.(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a 3prime brokerage firm should not enter into “right to use arrangements” for a client'ssafe custody assets unless:13(a) in the case of a CASS small firm or a firm to
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund must take reasonable care to ensure that the scheme is managed by the authorised fund manager in accordance with:(a) COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers);(b) COLL 6.2 (Dealing);(c) COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing);(d) COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution); 16(e) any provision of the instrument constituting the fund11 or prospectus that relates to the provisions referred to in (a) to (d); and1611(e) where applicable,
(1) The authorised fund manager must make and retain for six years such records as enable:(a) the scheme and the authorised fund manager to comply with the rules in this sourcebook and the OEIC Regulations; and(b) it to demonstrate at any time that such compliance has been achieved.(2) The authorised fund manager must make and retain for six years a daily record of the units in the scheme held, acquired or disposed of by the authorised fund manager, including the classes of such
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund is responsible for the safekeeping of all of the scheme property (other than tangible movable property) entrusted to it and must:(a) take all steps and complete all documents needed to ensure completion of transactions properly entered into for the account of the scheme;(b) ensure that scheme property in registered form is, as soon as practicable, registered in the name of the depositary, its nominee, or (in the case of a non-UCITS retail
(1) The authorised fund manager must manage the scheme in accordance with:(a) the instrument constituting the fund;1212(b) the16 applicable rules13; (c) the most recently published prospectus; 16(d) for an ICVC, the OEIC Regulations; and16(e) where applicable, the Money Market Funds Regulation.16(2) The authorised fund manager must carry out such functions as are necessary to ensure compliance with the rules13that impose obligations on the authorised fund manager or ICVC, as appropriate.(3)
(1) The depositary is responsible for the safekeeping of all the scheme property.(2) The depositary must:(a) take all steps to ensure that transactions properly entered into for the account of the scheme are completed;(b) take all steps to ensure that instructions properly given by the authorised fund manager in respect of the exercise of rights related to scheme property are carried out;(c) ensure that any scheme property in registered form is as soon as reasonably practicable
(1) The authorised fund manager must:(a) ensure that at each valuation point there are at least as many units in issue of any class as there are units registered to unitholders of that class; and(b) not do, or omit anything that would, or might confer on itself a benefit or advantage at the expense of a unitholder or potential unitholder.(2) For the purposes of (1) the authorised fund manager may take into account sales and redemptions after the valuation point, provided it has
1A firm should ensure that:(1) it considers the draft client assets report provided to the firm by its auditor in accordance with SUP 3.10.8DR (1) in order to provide an explanation of: (a) the circumstances that gave rise to each of the breaches identified in the draft report; and(b) any remedial actions that it has undertaken or plans to undertake to correct those breaches; and(2) the explanation provided in accordance with (1):(a) is submitted to its auditor in a timely fashion
2Where the FCA decides to administer a formal caution, a record of the caution will be kept by the FCA and on the Police National Computer. The FCA will not publish the caution, but it will be available to parties with access to the Police National Computer. The issue of a caution may influence the FCA and other prosecutors in their decision whether or not to prosecute the offender if they offend again. A1 caution given by the FCA will form part of the person's1 regulatory record
(1) 1The purpose of LR 6.2.1R(2), LR 6.2.3R, and LR 6.3.1R is to ensure that the applicant has representative financial information throughout the period required by LR 6.2.1R(1) and LR 6.2.3R and to assist prospective investors to make a reasonable assessment of what the future prospects of the applicant’s business might be. Investors are then able to consider the applicant’s historical financial information in light of its particular competitive advantages, the outlook for the
(1) This chapter amplifies Principle 6 and Principle 7. 2(1A) 2This chapter requires information to be supplied to customers at the start of a2regulated mortgage contract to enable them to check that the regulated mortgage contract has been set up in accordance with their requirements and to notify them of the first and subsequent payments.2(2) Where a firm provides services to a customer in relation to a further advance, rate switch, or addition or removal of a party to a regulated
A CASS large debt management firm must make a record of the grounds upon which it satisfies itself as to the appropriateness of its selection of an approved bank. The firm must make the record on the date it makes the selection and must keep it from the date of such selection until five years after the firm ceases to use the approved bank to hold client money.
As set out in DEPP 5, special decision-making arrangements apply in relation to settlement. The person concerned may agree all relevant issues with the FCA (in which case the settlement decision makers will give all relevant statutory notices). Alternatively, a focused resolution agreement may be agreed (in which case the settlement decision makers are responsible for giving the warning notice and the RDC for giving any decision notice).2 The FCA would expect to hold any settlement
A firm that receives or holds a client's assets under an arrangement to which this chapter2 applies and which exercises its right to treat the assets as its own must ensure that it maintains adequate records to enable it to meet any future obligations including the return of equivalent assets to the client.2
The FCA will apply the following principles of construction to determine whether a contract is a contract of insurance.(1) In applying the description in PERG 6.3.4 G, more weight attaches to the substance of the contract, than to the form of the contract. The form of the contract is relevant (see PERG 6.6.8 G (3) and (4)) but not decisive of whether a contract is a contract of insurance: Fuji Finance Inc. v. Aetna Life Insurance Co. Ltd [1997] Ch. 173 (C.A.).(2) In particular,
1A firm must make appropriate records to demonstrate compliance with the rules in this sourcebook and keep them for the following periods after an employee stops carrying on the activity:(1) at least 5 years for MiFID business;(2) 3 years for non-MiFID business; and(3) indefinitely for a pension transfer specialist.[Note: article 9(4) of the MCD]2
A firm must introduce adequate organisational arrangements to minimise the risk of the loss or diminution of client money, or of rights in connection with client money, as a result of misuse of client money, fraud, poor administration, inadequate record-keeping or negligence. [Note: article 2(1)(f)1 of the MiFID Delegated Directive1]
1The FCA's power under section 329 of the Act to make an order disapplying an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a person who is a member of the professions on the grounds that the member is not a fit and proper person to conduct exempt regulated activities, and to maintain a public record of disapplication orders, will assist the FCA in pursuing its statutory objectives.
(1) The Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls sourcebook (SYSC) 2 contains high-level record-keeping requirements (see SYSC 3.2.20 R, 2SYSC 9.1.1 R and SYSC 9.1.1 AR2).1212(2) This sourcebook does not generally have detailed record-keeping requirements: firms will need to decide what records they need to keep in line with the high-level record-keeping requirements and their own business needs. (3) Firms should bear in mind the need to deal with requests for information