Related provisions for SYSC 22.5.1
221 - 240 of 371 items.
1Under Part III RIPA the FCA is able to require a person who holds “protected” electronic information (that is, information which is encrypted) to put that information into an intelligible form and, where the person has a key to the encrypted information, to require the person to disclose the key so that the data may be put into an intelligible form. The FCA may impose such a requirement where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or where it is necessary
1A firm need not provide an illustration:(1) in relation to a direct deal; (2) if the customer refuses to disclose key information (for example, in a telephone conversation, his name or a communication address) or where the customer is not interested in pursuing the enquiry; or(3) if the firm does not wish to do business with the customer.
1Statements of Principle issued under section 64A(1)(a) of the Act
Statement of Principle 1 An approved person must act with integrity in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 2 An approved person must act with due skill, care and diligence in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 3 An approved person must observe proper standards of market conduct in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 4 An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice. |
Statement of Principle 5 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the APER employer4 for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function is organised so that it can be controlled effectively. |
Statement of Principle 6 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must exercise due skill, care and diligence in managing the business of the APER employer4 for which they are1 responsible in their 1accountable function. |
Statement of Principle 7 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the APER employer4 for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system. |
1When a UK RIE suspends trading on a trading venue4 in any financial instrument, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument and the reasons for the action taken. [Note: articles 32(2) and 52(2), paragraph 14 of MiFID. REC 2.6.6UK(4)5 requires that the FCA be notified when a trading suspension for a financial instrument is lifted or a financial instrument is re-admitted to trading. MiFID ITS
(1) This chapter applies if a firm:(a) advises a particular5customer to enter into, or arranges an execution-only sale in,5 a home finance transaction2; or52(b) provides information to a customer that is specific to the amount to be provided on a particular home finance transaction2, including information provided in response to a request from a customer; or2(c) provides the means for a customer to make an application to it;in connection with entering into, or agreeing to enter
A depositary must not carry out activities with regard to the UCITS scheme, or the authorised fund manager, acting on behalf of the scheme, that may create conflicts of interest between the scheme, the unitholders in the scheme or the authorised fund manager and itself, unless:(1) the depositary has properly identified any such potential conflicts of interest;(2) the depositary has functionally and hierarchically separated the performance of its depositary tasks from its other
(1) 8A firm must not grant any security interest, lien or right of set-off to another person over clients’safe custody assets that enable that other person to dispose of the safe custody assets in order to recover debts unless condition (a) or (b) is satisfied:(a) those debts relate to:(i) one or more of the firm’sclients; or(ii) the provision of services by that other person to one or more of the firm’sclients; or(b) to the extent those debts relate to anything else then:(i)
The list of eligible ECAIs is published on the appropriate regulator website. When the appropriate regulator recognises an ECAI as an eligible ECAI, it publishes that decision by amending the list of eligible ECAIs on the appropriate regulator website to include the name of the eligible ECAI. When the appropriate regulator determines that the recognition of an ECAI should be revoked, it publishes that decision by deleting the name of the ECAI from the list on the appropriate regulator
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement which
Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an OTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the OTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that OTF.[Note: article 18(8) of MiFID]
(1) Where a financial promotion concerns a facility for which security is or may be required, the promotion must:(a) state that security is or may be required; and(b) specify the nature of the security.[Note: regulation 7(1) of CCAR 2004](2) Where, in the case of a financial promotion, the security comprises or may comprise a mortgage or charge on a property used by the customer as a dwelling (whether or not the customer’s primary residence)4:(a) except where (c) applies, the
In determining whether a UK recognised body's measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the rules of the UK recognised body enable it to disclose any information to the FCA,3 or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of market abuse or financial
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
A firm must take reasonable steps, where it has agreed to accept sales leads from a lead generator for debt counselling or debt adjusting or providing credit information services, to ensure that the lead generator: (1) where it does not have a Part 4A permission for debt counselling and is not an appointed representative of a firm with such permission, does not carry on debt counselling in obtaining or passing on sales leads to the firm;(2) where it carries on debt counselling,
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 14, SYSC 18 to10SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or to 9SYSC 288 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 34437
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: