Related provisions for MCOB 11.6.61
241 - 260 of 303 items.
1A firm which carries on an activity which is subject to this section must comply with the following record-keeping requirements:(1) the person allocated the compliance oversight function in the firm must make a record at or near the time of the activity certifying it complies with the requirements set out in this section;(2) the making of the record required in (1) may be delegated to one or more employees of the firm who report to and are supervised by the person allocated the
For an MTF to be eligible for registration as an SME growth market, the firm must have effective rules, systems and procedures which ensure that:(1) at least 50% of the issuers whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on the MTF are small and medium-sized enterprises at the time when the MTF is registered as an SME growth market, and in any calendar year thereafter;(2) appropriate criteria are set for initial and ongoing admission to trading of financial instruments
(1) Upon the removal or retirement of the authorised fund manager3, the removed or retiring authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS:333(a) is entitled to be recorded in the register for those units continued to be held or treated as held by it as principal3; and(b) may require the depositary3 to issue to it a certificate for those units (if not previously issued).3(2) Paragraph (1) is subject to any restriction in the prospectus relating to the permitted categories of unitho
(1) Securitisation documentation should make clear, where applicable, that any repurchase of securitised exposures or securitisation positions by the originator or sponsor beyond its contractual obligations is not mandatory and may only be made at fair market value. In general, any such repurchase should be subject to a firm's credit review and approval process, which should be adequate to ensure that the repurchase complies with BIPRU 9.6.1 R.(2) If an originator or sponsor repurchases
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) 6alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FCA5 will take into account relevant factors, including:66(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business
The criteria for determining whether it is appropriate to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty include those factors that the FCA2 will consider in1 determining the amount of penalty set out in DEPP 6.5 A to DEPP 6.5 D.1 Some particular considerations that may be relevant when the FCA2 determines whether to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty are:122(1) whether or not deterrence may be effectively achieved by issuing a public
For the purposes of this chapter, where a lender allows a borrower to make a number of drawdowns of credit (which may be expressed to be possible up to a specified amount of credit) but only with the lender's consent to each respective drawdown, each drawdown is a separate agreement for high-cost short-term credit and each agreement needs to be documented as a separate regulated credit agreement in accordance with the CCA and with the rest of CONC. This chapter applies to each
(1) The potential FCA governing functions should be recorded in A’s statement of responsibilities and in the firm'smanagement responsibilities map.(2) A potential FCA governing function means a function that would have been an FCA governing function but which is not an FCA governing function because of SUP 10C.9.8R.
If a firm is transferring its business, the relevant regulator24 may require a professional opinion in respect of certain aspects of the transfer. For example, the relevant regulator24 may require a legal opinion on the validity of arrangements to transfer regulated activities, client money, client deposits, custody assets or any other property belonging to clients, to another authorised person. Alternatively, an auditor or reporting accountant may be requested to verify that
(1) A firm must establish, implement and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for the disclosure of reportable concerns by whistleblowers.(2) The arrangements in (1) must at least:(a) be able effectively to handle disclosures of reportable concerns including: (i) where the whistleblower has requested confidentiality or has chosen not to reveal their identity; and(ii) allowing for disclosures to be made through a range of communication methods; (b) ensure the effective
4The processes that a firm or CBTL firm7 should have in place in order to comply with DISP 1.3.3 R may include, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's or CBTL firm’s7 business including, in particular, the number of complaints the firm or CBTL firm7receives:(1) the collection of management information on the causes of complaints and the products and services complaints relate to, including information about complaints that are resolved by the firm by
Where notice of cancellation has been served on a firm (or its appointed representative or agent), the firm must make and retain a record (which includes a copy of any receipt of notice issued to the consumer2 and the consumer's2 original notice instructions) for three years from the date when the firm first became aware that notice of cancellation had been served.22