Related provisions for SUP 18.3.5
21 - 40 of 203 items.
(1) Strategy and plans will often dictate the risk which the business is prepared to take on and high-level controls will dictate how the business is to be run. If the strategy of the business is to enter high-risk areas, then the degree of control and strength of monitoring reasonably required within the business will be high. In organising the business for which they are responsible, senior conduct rules staff members should bear this in mind.4(2) (a) Strategy and plans for
For the purpose of rule SC4 in COCON 2.2.4R, regulators in addition to the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the relevant person in connection with their function or the business for which they are responsible. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
SC4 applies to senior conduct rules staff members in addition to rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R. Although, the rules have some overlap, they are different. Rule 3 normally relates to responses from individuals to requests from the regulator, whereas rule SC4 imposes a duty on a senior conduct rules staff member to disclose appropriately any information of which the appropriate regulator would reasonably expect, including making a disclosure in the absence of any request or enquiry from
Where a senior conduct rules staff member is responsible within the firm (individually or with other senior conduct rules staff members) for reporting matters to the regulator, failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned of information of which they are aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned, whether in response to questions or otherwise, constitutes a breach of rule SC4 in COCON 2.2.4R.
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities.5 For an SMF manager those responsibilities will be set out in that person’sstatement of responsibilities.52(2) If it does, then they should ensure that, if it is otherwise appropriate to do so, it is disclosed to the appropriate
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to:44(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FCA4 in the exercise of its functions;4(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FCA4 or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;4(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the appropriate regulator8 to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the appropriate regulator8 before applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission.8888
Discussions with the appropriate regulator8 are particularly relevant where the firm has to discharge obligations to its customers or policyholders before it can cease carrying on a regulated activity. This may be the case, for example, where the firm is an insurer, a bank, a dormant asset fund operator7,4 or, as is often the case, holding client money or customer assets.8
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator8 to discuss its circumstances. Discussions will focus on8 the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel itsPart 4A permission and/or the need to impose a new requirement, vary any existing requirement or cancel such a requirement. Following these discussions the firm should usually make the relevant application, as appropria
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part 4A permission or for the imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement before it applies for cancellation of Part 4A permission8 to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months
(1) An authorised fund manager 6 must employ an appropriate liquidity risk management process in order to ensure that each UCITS it manages is able to comply at any time with COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption)6.(2) Where appropriate, the authorised fund manager 6 must conduct stress tests to enable it to assess the liquidity risk of the UCITS under exceptional circumstances.[Note: article 40(3) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
1The FCA's power to conduct investigations to assist overseas authorities is contained in section 169 of the Act. The section provides that at the request of an overseas regulator, the FCA may use its power under section 165 to require the production of documents or the provision of information under section 165 or to appoint a person to investigate any matter.
1DEPP 7 applies when the FCA3:3(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators)4under
section 131FA2 of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator4 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes of the investigation.2
1Section 59(1) is relevant where the firm directly employs the person concerned. Under the provision, a firm ('A') must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by it of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval relates.
1Section 59(2) is relevant where the person is employed by a contractor of the firm. It requires a firm ('A') to take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a contractor of A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval
Section 213(3)(b) of the Act requires the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons, and on recognised investment exchanges that are operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility,13 in order to meet its expenses. These expenses include in particular expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, in paying compensation, borrowing or insuring risks.
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
The9 provisions on the allocation of levies to classes9122 meet9 a requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the FCA12, in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability of ensuring that the amount of the levies imposed on a particular class of authorised person reflects, so far as practicable, the amount of claims made, or likely to be made, in respect of that class of person.22229999
(1) 1This direction applies to:(a) a MiFID investment firm3; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, provide the FCA with a report containing a complete breakdown of:(a)
their positions taken in those commodity derivatives
(1) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.6.2G(1)]3(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.6.2G(2)]3(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.1.6G(3)]3(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 25.6.2G(4)]3
A firm is required to notify the appropriate regulator of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). The effective supervision threshold conditions provide that, if a firm has close links with another person, the matters which are relevant in determining whether a firm satisfies the condition of being capable of being effective supervised include:1111(1) the nature of the relationship between the firm and that person;1111(2) whether those links or that relationship are likely
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator11 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions11 and to the protection of consumers; and1111(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information
(1) 11111111557[deleted]7(2) [deleted]7111111117(3) [deleted]7(4) [deleted]7(5) 57[deleted]7(6) 7A firm must submit a report to the appropriate regulator annually by completing the Close Links Annual Report in SUP 16 Annex 36A which must be sent electronically to the appropriate regulator within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date6.
(1) 1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the establishment, application and resetting of position limits:
(a) Regulation 16(1) imposes an obligation on the FCA to establish position limits in respect of commodity derivatives traded on trading venues in the United Kingdom and economically equivalent OTC contracts;
(b) Regulation 16(2) imposes an obligation on the FCA to establish position limits on the basis of all positions held by a person in the contract
(1) 1A person must comply at all times with commodity derivative position limits established by the FCA, published at www.fca.org.uk. (2) A direction made under (1) applies where a commodity derivative is traded on a trading venue in the United Kingdom.2(3) Position limits established under (1) shall apply to the positions held by a person together with those held on its behalf at an aggregate group level (subject to the non-financial entity exemption in regulation 17(1) of the
For the purpose of rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R, regulators other than the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the firm or from individuals performing certain functions in connection with those regulated activities. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
There is no duty on a person to report information directly to the regulator concerned unless they are one of the persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned. However, if a person takes steps to influence the decision not to report to the regulator concerned or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned, then the appropriate regulator will, in respect of that information, view
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the online notification and application system16.9112412129(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out
The relevant regulator24 may require additional information, including professional advice, to supplement or support the report in SUP 6.4.9 G where it considers this appropriate. Examples of reports that may be requested by the relevant regulator24 include, but are not limited to those detailed in SUP 6.4.16 G.2424
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that has appointed representatives21);1520(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for an SMCR firm20); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the the FCA or PRA20 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These forms should give the
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the relevant regulator24 will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:24(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.11.34R 13 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty)24 and CASS 7.11.50 R135(Client money: allocated but unclaimed
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written contract1 it has entered into with the depositary1 of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in article 22(2)1 of the UCITS Directive; and (b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management
Where an authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS enters into a master-feeder agreement or, if applicable, internal conduct of business rules, with the management company of an EEA UCITS scheme, references in COLL 11 Annex 1 R and COLL 11 Annex 2 R to COLLrules that implemented4 provisions in the UCITS Directive which are the responsibility of the EEA UCITS scheme'sHome State regulator should be read as referring to the corresponding provisions in the laws and regulations of
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the fund,2 to:2(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the FCA4;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
An actuary appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay if he:2255(1) is removed from office by a firm; or(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or(3) is not reappointed by a firm.
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:222525(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
The FCA4 will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.4(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an individual under6section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The individual's6 position and responsibilities. The FCA4 may take into account the
When deciding how to proceed in such cases, the FCA4 will examine the circumstances of the case, and consider, in the light of the relevant investigation, disciplinary and enforcement powers, whether it is appropriate for the FCA4 or another authority to take action to address the breach. The FCA4 will have regard to all the circumstances of the case including whether the other authority has adequate powers to address the breach in question.444