Related provisions for BIPRU 1.2.19
221 - 240 of 305 items.
An ICVC must notify the FCA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
If a listed company enters into a related party transaction, the listed company must:(1) make a notification in accordance with LR 10.4.1 R (Notification of class 2 transactions) that contains the details required by that rule and also:(a) the name of the related party; and(b) details of the nature and extent of the related party's interest in the transaction or arrangement;(2) send a circular to its shareholders containing the information required by LR 13.3 and LR 13.6;(3) obtain
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) in the EEA or Gibraltar16 if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c)
2An originator must notify the appropriate regulator that it is relying on the deemed transfer of significant credit risk under BIPRU 9.4.11R within a reasonable period before or after a relevant transfer, not being later than one month after the date of the transfer. The notification must include the following information:(1) 2the risk weighted exposure amount of the securitised exposures and retained securitisation positions; (2) 2the exposure value of the securitised exposures
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation),2section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes) or section 261C of the Act (Applications for authorisation of contractual schemes)2.2(2) COLLG 3A (The FCA’s responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4A (The FCA’s responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations)
Under article 61(3)(b) of the Regulated Activities Order, administering a regulated mortgage contract is defined as either or both of:(1) notifying the borrower of changes in interest rates or payments due under the contract, or of other matters of which the contract requires him to be notified; and(2) taking any necessary steps for the purposes of collecting or recovering payments due under the contract from the borrower;but does not include merely having or exercising a right
(1) A firm must notify to the Motor Insurers’ Information Centre3:(a) the name and address of the claims representative which they have appointed in the United Kingdom3;[Note: article 23(2) of the Consolidated Motor Insurance Directive](b) the telephone number and effective date of appointment; and(c) any material change to information previously notified.(2) Notification must be made within ten business days of an appointment or of a material change.
Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)
Category of firm |
Applicable sections |
|
(1) |
A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society5, a non-directive firm45or (in the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission3 54 |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
(1A) |
(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9 (b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3 9 |
|
(2) |
||
(2A) 3 |
4 | all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
5(2B) |
(In the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R , and SUP 11.4.4 R |
(3) |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73 |
|
Note |
In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21 944994494 |
|
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to the fee payers listed in column 1 of the Table of application, notification and vetting fees in FEES 3.2.7 R29. 1050(a) [deleted]1010(b) [deleted]1010(c) [deleted]1010(d) [deleted]1010(e) [deleted]10(f) [deleted]1010(g) [deleted]1010(h) [deleted]1010(i) [deleted]1010(j) [deleted]1010(k) [deleted]1010(l) [deleted]1010(m) [deleted]1010(n) [deleted]104(o) 3345410[deleted]10(p) 55410[deleted]10(q) 6510[deleted]10(r)
(1) Under the UK provisions which implemented2 article 31 AIFMD, an AIFM is required to submit the documentation and information set out in the law that implemented2 Annex III to AIFMD with its application for permission to market an AIF managed by it and to notify the FCA2 of any material changes to this documentation and information. Therefore, the prescribed documentation and information should be in materially final form before the AIFM may apply for permission to market an
17When the
Ombudsman9
has determined a complaint:9(1) the Ombudsman will give both parties a signed written statement of the determination, giving the reasons for it;(2) the statement will require the complainant to notify the Ombudsman ,9 before the date specified in the statement, whether he accepts or rejects the determination;(3) if the complainant notifies the Ombudsman that he accepts the determination within that time limit, it is final and binding on both parties;(4)
The approach in this section is only likely to be relevant for a limited licence firm or a limited activity firm that has only incidental credit exposures and for whom it would be prohibitively costly to establish the systems needed to include the credit assessments of ECAIs and export credit agencies in its regulatory capital calculations. However the approach may be used by other firms if appropriate. A firm should notify the appropriate regulator if it adopts the approach in
The debt management client money chapter applies (to the extent indicated by CASS 11.1.4 R to CASS 11.1.6 R) to a CASS debt management firm, even if at the date of the determination or, as the case may be, the notification, referred to in CASS 11.2.4 R, the CASS debt management firm is not holding client money, provided that:(1) it held client money in the previous calendar year; or(2) it projects to hold client money in the current calendar year.
(1) The FCA may dispense with or modify the listing rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to 4the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer or sponsor has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance or appropriateness of the dispensation
For the purposes of FEES 13.2.4R:(1) a firm in activity group CC2 may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(a) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the costs of identifying the firm’sUK business separately from its non-UK business in the way described in FEES 4 Annex 11BR are disproportionate to the difference in fees payable; and (b) it notifies the FCA in writing at the same time as it provides the information
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group3 which is a firm3has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group3;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-UK sub-group3, as soon as the firm becomes