Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1

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REC 2.12.2AAUKRP

7Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9ZB

[Note: This paragraph is relevant to regulated markets only. See REC 2.16A regarding MTFs or OTFs.]

(1)

The rules of the [UK RIE] must ensure that all -

(a)

[financial instruments] admitted to trading on a [regulated market] operated by it are capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner;

(b)

[transferable securities] admitted to trading on a [regulated market] operated by it are freely negotiable; and

(c)

contracts for derivatives admitted to trading on a [regulated market] operated by it are designed so as to allow for their orderly pricing as well as for the existence of effective settlement conditions.

[Note:MiFID RTS 17 specifies further conditions for financial instruments to be admitted to trading on regulated markets]

(2)

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where the [UK RIE], without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a regulated market operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on another regulated market, the [UK RIE] -

(a)

must inform the issuer of that security as soon as is reasonably practicable; and

(b)

may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(3)

The [UK RIE] must maintain effective arrangements to verify that issuers of transferable securities admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the disclosure obligations.

(4)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to assist members of or participants in a regulated market operated by it to obtain access to information made public under the disclosure obligations.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to regularly review regularly whether financial instruments admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the admission requirements for those instruments.

[Note: see MiFID RTS 17]

(6)

In this paragraph -

“the disclosure obligations” are the initial ongoing and ad hoc disclosure requirements contained in-

(a)

Articles 17, 18 and 19 of the market abuse regulation;

(b)

those provisions of Part 6 of the Act and Part 6 rules (within the meaning of section 73A of the Act) which were relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement—8

(i)

Articles 3, 5, 7, 8, 14 and 16 of Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectuses to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading;8

(ii)

Articles 4 to 6, 14 and 16 to 19 of Directive 2004/109/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 December 2004 relating to the harmonisation of transparency requirements in relation to information about issuers whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market;8

as they have effect on IP completion day in the case of Part 6 rules;8

(c)

8

(d)

any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under any of the provisions mentioned in paragraphs (a), (b)(i) and (b)(ii) on or after IP completion day.8

8

8

8

8

8
MAR 2.5.2RRP
A person who is treated under MAR 2.5.1R (1) as acting or engaging in conduct in conformity with the price stabilising rules is also to be treated to an equivalent extent as so acting or engaging for the purposes of:(1) [deleted]2(2) Part XIV (Disciplinary measures); and (3) Part XXV (Injunctions and Restitution) of the Act.
RCB 6.2.2GRP
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices) in respect of notices that we give under the RCB Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393 of the Act (Third party rights) and section 394 of the Act (Access to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter is not referred to the Tribunal, then upon taking the action to which a decision notice relates,
EG 19.5.5RP
1Under Part III RIPA the FCA is able to require a person who holds “protected” electronic information (that is, information which is encrypted) to put that information into an intelligible form and, where the person has a key to the encrypted information, to require the person to disclose the key so that the data may be put into an intelligible form. The FCA may impose such a requirement where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or where it is necessary
PERG 6.3.1GRP
The business of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance is subject to prior authorisation under the Act1and regulation by the FCA and PRA1. (There are some limited exceptions to this requirement, for example, for breakdown insurance.)1
APER 2.1A.3RRP

1Statements of Principle issued under section 64A(1)(a) of the Act

Statement of Principle 1

An approved person must act with integrity in carrying out his accountable functions.

Statement of Principle 2

An approved person must act with due skill, care and diligence in carrying out his accountable functions.

Statement of Principle 3

An approved person must observe proper standards of market conduct in carrying out his accountable functions.

Statement of Principle 4

An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice.

Statement of Principle 5

An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the APER employer4 for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function is organised so that it can be controlled effectively.

Statement of Principle 6

An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must exercise due skill, care and diligence in managing the business of the APER employer4 for which they are1 responsible in their 1accountable function.

Statement of Principle 7

An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the APER employer4 for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system.
COLL 11.5.5GRP
Section 351A of the Act provides that where an auditor of an AUT or ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding provisions for auditors of ICVCs that are feeder UCITS
PRIN 3.4.4RRP
A contravention of the rules in PRIN does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action).
SYSC 22.9.5GRP
(1) SYSC 22.9.1R applies to keeping records created before the date this chapter came into force as well as ones created afterwards.(2) A3firm does not breach the requirements of this chapter by failing to include something in a reference or by failing to have records2 because it destroyed the relevant records before the date this chapter came into force in accordance with the record keeping requirements applicable to it at the time of destruction.2(3) (1) also applies to records
COLL 4.3.2GRP
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)
SYSC 19A.1.1RRP
(1) 1The Remuneration Code applies to:33(a) [deleted]63(b) [deleted]63(c) an IFPRU investment firm;6 and73(d) 3an overseas firm that would be an IFPRU investment firm if it had been a UK domestic firm, had carried on all its business in the UK and had obtained whatever authorisations for doing so as are required under the Act.8(2) In relation to a 3firm that falls under (1)(d), the Remuneration Code applies only in relation to activities carried on from an establishment in the
GEN 1.3.1GRP
The FCA5 recognises that there may be occasions when, because of a particular emergency, a person (generally a firm, but in certain circumstances, for example in relation to price stabilising rules, an unauthorised person) may be unable to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook. The purpose of GEN 1.3.2 R is to provide appropriate relief from the consequences of contravention of such a rule in those circumstances.1993
COLL 9.4.1RRP
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme5must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom in order to satisfy the requirements of COLL 9.4.2 R to COLL 9.4.6 R. 4(2) In this section, a facility is a place of business that complies with COLL 9.4.6 R (Place of facilities).
EG 12.1.1RP
1The FCA has powers under sections 401 and 402 of the Act to prosecute a range of criminal offences in England, Wales and Northern Ireland. The FCA may also prosecute criminal offences where to do so would be consistent with meeting any of its statutory objectives.
BIPRU 12.3.9GRP
As part of the SLRP, the appropriate regulator will assess the appropriateness of the liquidity risk tolerance adopted by an ILAS BIPRU firm to ensure that this risk tolerance is consistent with maintenance by the firm of adequate liquidity resources for the purpose of the overall liquidity adequacy rule. The appropriate regulator will expect a firm to provide it with an adequately reasoned explanation for the level of liquidity risk which that firm'sgoverning body has decided
SYSC 22.2.3RRP

Table: What positions need a reference

Position

When to obtain reference

Comments

(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.

One month before the end of the application period

Where a request for a reference would require:

(a) the firm requesting the reference;

(b) the employer giving the reference; or

(c) any other person;

to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period.

(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by2 authorised persons).

Before the certificate is issued

This includes renewing an existing certificate.

(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook):

(a) a notified non-executive director;

(b) a credit union non-executive director; or

(c) a key function holder.

Not applicable

SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

3(D) A firm appointing someone to be a non-SMF board director subject to competence requirements of itself.

Before appointment

Only applies where the appointment is by a UK SMCR firm that is:

(a) a core SMCR firm; or

(b) an enhanced scope SMCR firm.

Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public.

Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R.

Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application).
APER 1.1A.9GRP
[deleted]5
COCON 3.1.3GRP
Without prejudice to section 66A of the Act, a person will only be in breach of any of the rules in COCON where they are personally culpable. Personal culpability arises where: (1) a person's conduct was deliberate; or(2) the person's standard of conduct was below that which would be reasonable in all the circumstances.