Related provisions for LR 11.1.1B

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COND 1.2.1GRP
COND gives guidance on the threshold conditions. The FCA3threshold conditions represent the minimum conditions for which the FCA is responsible,3 which a firm is required to satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in order to be given and to retainPart 4A permission. A PRA-authorised person or, as appropriate, a firm seeking to become a PRA-authorised person must also satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions for which the PRA is responsible in order to be given and
COND 1.2.2GRP
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) [deleted]43333333
COND 1.2.3GRP
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
COND 1.2.5GRP
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
FIT 1.2.-1GRP
7Under section 60A(1) of the Act, before a firm16 may make an application for the FCA's approval of a controlled function14 the firm14 must be satisfied that the person for whom the application is made is a fit and proper person to perform that function.1488
FIT 1.2.1GRP
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FCA7 may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) of the Act14 only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.7
FIT 1.2.1BGRP
7Under sections 60A and 63F 7of the Act, in assessing whether a person is a fit and proper person to perform an FCA designated senior management function or an FCA certification function14, 7a firm16 must have particular regard to whether that person:7714(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.
FIT 1.2.3AGRP
19Under section 63(1) of the Act (Withdrawal of approval), the FCA may withdraw an approval under section 59 given by the FCA or the PRA in relation to the performance by a person of a function if it considers that the person is not a fit and proper person to perform the function.
FIT 1.2.4GRP
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FCA7 should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FCA7 may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person:777(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.7
FIT 1.2.4BGRP
6 Where the application relates to a function within a Solvency II firm and is for an FCA controlled function which is also a Solvency II Directive ‘key function’ as defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary, then the FCA will also have regard to the assessment made by the firm as required in article 273 of the Solvency II Regulation (EU) 2015/35 of 10 October 2014; Rules 2.1 and 2.2 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Insurance - Fitness and Propriety, and other factors, as set
EG 19.2.1RP
1The FCA has certain functions in relation to what are described as “registrant-only” mutual societies including registered societies or registered friendly societies.2 These societies are not regulated or supervised under the Act. Instead, they are subject to the provisions of2 FSA74, FSA92, CCBSA14 and CCBSA(NI)693 which require them to register with the FCA and fulfil certain other obligations, such as the requirement to submit annual returns. 2
EG 19.2.3RP
1The FCA's enforcement activities in respect of registrant-only societies focus on prosecuting societies that fail to submit annual returns. As registrant-only societies are not subject to the rules imposed by the Act and by the FCA Handbook, the requirement that they submit annual returns provides an important check that the interests and investments of members, potential members, creditors and other interested parties are being safeguarded. The power to prosecute
EG 19.2.5RP
1The FCA may also use its power to petition for the society’s winding up where it has prosecuted a society but the society continues to fail to submit the outstanding annual returns or defaults on submitting further returns.
EG 19.2.6RP
1The decision whether to initiate criminal and other proceedings under these Acts will be taken in accordance with the procedure described in EG 12.1.7. Under these Acts,3 a society may appeal certain decisions of the FCA relating to the refusal, cancellation or suspension of a society’s registration to the High Court or, in Scotland, the Court of Session. 3Distinguishing features of the procedure for giving statutory notices under the FSA92, including available rights of reference
EG 19.2.7RP
1Further information about the FCA's powers under these Acts3 can be found on the FCA's website.[Note:https://www.fca.org.uk/firms/mutual-societies]32
EG 8.4.1RP
1When varying Part 4A permission at its own-initiative under its section 55J power (or section 55Q power), the FCA may include in the Part 4A permission as varied any limitation or restriction which it could have imposed if a fresh permission were being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act.
EG 8.4.2RP
1Examples of the limitations that the FCA may impose when exercising its own-initiative variation power in support of its enforcement function include limitations on: the number, or category, of customers that a firm can deal with; the number of specified investments that a firm can deal in; and the activities of the firm so that they fall within specific regulatory regimes (for example, so that oil market participants,2corporate finance advisory firms and service
EG 8.4.3RP
1Under its section 55L power (or section 55Q power), the FCA may, at any time and of its own initiative, impose on an authorised person such requirements as it considers appropriate.
EG 8.4.4RP
1Examples of requirements that the FCA may consider imposing when exercising its own-initiative power in support of its enforcement function are: a requirement not to take on new business; a requirement not to hold or control client money; a requirement not to trade in certain categories of specified investment; a requirement that prohibits the disposal of, or other dealing with, any of the firm’s assets (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) or restricts
PERG 8.17.5GRP
Providing qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order. In the FCA's view, 'providing' means, in this context, providing as lender; an intermediary does not 'provide' qualifying credit.
PERG 8.17.13GRP
Introducers can check whether a person is an authorised person or an appointed representative by visiting the FCA's register at www.fca.org.uk/firms/financial-services-register.If an authorised person has permission to carry on a regulated activity (which can be checked on the FCA's register) it is reasonable, in the FCA's view, to conclude that the authorised person carries on that activity (but not a controlled activity which is not a regulated activity). The FCA would normally
PERG 8.17.14GRP
In the FCA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable in connection with transfer of property to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a borrower. For example, article 28B allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
PERG 8.17.15GRP
In the FCA's view, the provision of details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(ii) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient
PERG 8.17.16GRP
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FCA would
EG 13.10.1RP
1In general terms, the approval of a voluntary arrangement (in relation to companies, partnerships and individuals) requires more than 75% of the creditors to whom notice of a meeting has been sent and who are present in person or by proxy. The arrangement must also not be opposed by more than 50% of creditors given notice of the meeting and who have notified their claim, but excluding secured creditors and creditors who are, in the case of companies or partnerships, connected
EG 13.10.2RP
1Exceptionally, the FCA will consider making such a challenge using its powers in sections 356 and 357 of the Act after considering, in particular, the following matters: (1) The composition of the creditors of the company including the ratio of consumer to non-consumer creditors or the nature of their claims; (2) whether the FCA has concerns, or is aware of concerns of creditors, about the regularity of the meeting or the identification of connected or associated
EG 13.10.3RP
1Similarly, the FCA will not normally use its powers under section 358 of the Act to petition for sequestration of a debtor's estate following the grant of a trust deed, if the trust deed has been, or appears likely to be, acceded to by a majority of creditors.:
EG 13.10.4RP
1In considering whether to exercise its powers under Schedule A1 to the 1986 Act to make a challenge in relation to acts, omissions or decisions of a nominee during a moratorium, the FCA will have regard to the following matters in particular: (1) whether the FCA is aware of matters indicating that the proposed voluntary arrangement does not have a reasonable prospect of being approved and implemented or that the company is likely to have insufficient funds available to it to
DTR 8.2.1RRP
A person wishing to be included on the list of primary information providers, must apply to the FCA for approval as a primary information provider by submitting the following to the FCA:(1) the name, registered office address, registered number and the names and addresses of the directors and company secretary of the person applying for approval and, where applicable, the corporate group to which the person belongs;(2) details of all the arrangements that it has established or
DTR 8.2.3RRP
A person wishing to be included on the list of primary information providers must also submit to the FCA: (1) all additional documents, explanations and information that the FCA may reasonably require to decide whether to grant an application for approval as a primary information provider; and(2) verification of any documents, explanations and information provided to the FCA in such a manner as the FCA may reasonably require under (1).
DTR 8.2.4GRP
When considering an application for approval as a primary information provider the FCA may carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators.[Note: The decision-making procedures that the FCA will follow when it considers whether to refuse an application for approval as a primary information provider are set out in DEPP.]
DTR 8.2.5GRP
Approval as a primary information provider becomes effective when the person is informed in writing by the FCA. The FCA will as soon as possible add the name of the person who has been approved as a primary information provider to the list of primary information providers.
DTR 8.2.6GRP
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider may provide at the time of granting a primary information provider's approval.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89P of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
SUP 12.4.8GRP
If a firm has doubts that a prospective introducerappointed representative or other person is of sufficiently good reputation and otherwise fit and proper, the FCA will expect it to resolve those doubts before appointing the prospective introducer appointed representative. For example, if a firm is aware that a person's previous appointment as an introducer appointed representative or representative was terminated, it should take reasonable steps to find out the reasons for the
SUP 12.4.9GRP
(1) 1An appointed representative must not commence an insurance distribution activity15 until they are15 included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on such activities (see SUP 12.5.2 G (3)). (2) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include an insurance mediation activityinsurance distribution activity15, the principal must notify the FSAFCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).
SUP 12.4.10GRP
(1) 1The FCA has the power to decide not to include on the Financial Services Register (or to remove from the Financial Services Register) an appointed representative whose scope of appointment includes an insurance distribution activity15, if it appears to the FCA that he is not a fit and proper person to carry on those activities (article 95 of the Regulated Activities Order).(2) If the FCA proposes to use the power in (1), it must give the appointed representative a warning
SUP 12.4.10CGRP
(1) 10If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation activity, the principal must notify the FCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).(2) An appointed representative must not commence an MCD credit intermediation activity until they are included on the Financial Services Register. (3) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation
SUP 12.4.11RRP
8If a MiFID investment firm19 appoints an FCA registered tied agent, SUP 12.4.2 R and SUP 12.4.2A R apply to that firm as though the FCA registered tied agent were an appointed representative.[Note: paragraphs 2 and 3 of article 29(3)13of MiFID]
SUP 12.4.12GRP
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). The19 register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. 13(2) A MiFID investment firm19 that appoints an FCA registered tied agent who is not registered with the FCA will, subject to certain conditions, be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed on it by or under the Act (see
CASS 7.13.21ARRP
(1) 6A firm need not comply with CASS 7.13.20R if, following an assessment, it is able to demonstrate that the requirement under that rule is not proportionate, in view of: (a) the small balance of client money that it holds; (b) the nature, scale and complexity of its business; and (c) the safety offered by the relevant third parties referred to under CASS 7.13.20R.(2) A firm must review any assessment it makes under (1) periodically. (3) A firm must notify its assessment under
CASS 7.13.21BGRP
(1) 6In relation to the requirement to take account of a firm’s “small balance” of client money at CASS 7.13.21AR(1)(a):(a) the FCA expects a firm that would not qualify to be a CASS small firm under the rules in CASS 1A.2, ignoring any safe custody assets that it holds, to have difficulty in justifying using the approach in CASS 7.13.21AR(1);(b) a firm should calculate its client money balance for these purposes in the same way required under CASS 1A.2.3R, and base its assessment
CASS 7.13.21CRRP
6Where a firm decides following an assessment under CASS 7.13.21AR(1) that it intends to use the approach under that rule, the firm must give the FCA notice of this upon reaching that decision and before it starts to use that approach.Where, following a review under CASS 7.13.21AR(2) a firm decides that it will either cease to use the approach under CASS 7.13.21AR(1) or continue to use it, it must give the FCA notice of this upon reaching that decision.
CASS 7.13.24GRP
The rules in SUP 16.14 provide that CASS large firms and CASS medium firms must report to the FCA in relation to the identity of the entities with which they deposit client money and the amounts of client money deposited with those entities. The FCA will use that information to monitor compliance with the diversification rule in CASS 7.13.20 R.
CASS 7.13.57RRP
At least three months before adopting the alternative approach for a particular business line, a firm must: (1) inform the FCA in writing that it intends to adopt the alternative approach for that particular business line; and(2) if requested by the FCA, make any documents it created under CASS 7.13.55 R2 available to the FCA for inspection.
CASS 7.13.58RRP
(1) In addition to the requirement under CASS 7.13.57 R, before adopting the alternative approach, a firm must send a written report to the FCA prepared by an independent auditor of the firm in line with a reasonable assurance engagement, stating the matters set out in (2).(2) The written report in (1) must state whether, in the auditor's opinion:(a) the firm's systems and controls are suitably designed to enable it to comply with CASS 7.13.62 R to CASS 7.13.65 R; and(b) the firm's
CASS 7.13.60RRP
A firm that uses the alternative approach must not materially change how it will calculate and maintain the alternative approach mandatory prudent segregation amount under CASS 7.13.65 R unless:(1) an auditor of the firm has prepared a report that complies with the requirements in CASS 7.13.58 R (2)(b) in respect of the firm's proposed changes; and (2) the firm provides a copy of the report prepared by the auditor under (a) to the FCA before implementing the change.
SUP 16.12.2GRP
(1) Principle 4 requires firms to maintain adequate financial resources. The prudential sourcebooks, which are contained in the Prudential Standards block in the Handbook,89GENPRU and IFPRU37 set out the FCA's65 detailed capital adequacy requirements. By submitting regular data, firms enable the FCA65 to monitor their compliance with Principle 4 and their prudential requirements.973737979797979737(2) The data items submitted help the FCA65 analyse firms' financial and other
SUP 16.12.3RRP
(1) Any firm permitted to 5carry5 on any of the activities within each of the RAGs set out in column (1) of the table in SUP 16.12.4 R must:(a) (i) unless (ii) or (iii) 11applies, submit to the FCA65 the duly completed data items or other items applicable to the firm as set out in the provision referred to in column (2) of that table;9797(ii) unless (iii) applies, where 11 a firm is required to submit completed data items for 11more than one RAG, that11firm must only submit the
SUP 16.12.4RRP

Table of applicable rules containing data items4, frequency and submission periods

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

RAGnumber

Regulated Activities

Provisions containing:

applicabledata items

reporting frequency/ period

due date32

32
271212 37

RAG 1

• accepting deposits

• meeting of repayment claims76

managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds)76

RAG 1 firms should complete their prudential reporting requirements as set out in the PRA Rulebook.76

RAG 2.1

• effecting contracts of insurance

• carrying out contracts of insurance

• entering as provider into a funeral plan contract

71

2

71

2

71

2

RAG 2.2

• managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyds syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyds

• advising on syndicate participation at Lloyds

• arranging deals in contracts of insurance written at Lloyds

SUP 16.12.9 R2

SUP 16.12.9 R2

SUP 16.12.9 R2

RAG 3

• dealing in investment as principal

• dealing in investments as agent

• advising on investments (except P2P agreements) 67 (excluding retail investment activities)

• arranging (bringing about) deals in investments (excluding retail investment activities)

• advising on P2P agreements (when carried on exclusively with or for professional clients)67

SUP 16.12.10 R2

SUP 16.12.11 R7889

3737

SUP 16.12.10 R2SUP 16.12.12 R78

37

SUP 16.12.10 R2SUP 16.12.13 R

RAG 4

• managing investments

• establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme

• establishing, operating or winding up a stakeholder pension scheme

• establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme2

• managing an AIF38

• managing a UK UCITS82

• operating an electronic system in relation to lending (FCA-authorised persons only)48

3838385

SUP 16.12.14 R2

SUP 16.12.15 R7889

3737

SUP 16.12.14 R2SUP 16.12.16 R78

37

SUP 16.12.14 R2SUP 16.12.17 R

RAG 5

• home finance administration or home finance providing activity11

• the activity of a P2P platform operator facilitating a home finance transaction, where the lender or provider does not require permission to enter into the transaction83

11

76SUP 16.12.18BR 37 and SUP 16.12.18C R58

258

76SUP 16.12.18BR 37 and SUP 16.12.18C R58

258

76SUP 16.12.18BR 37 and SUP 16.12.18C R58

258

RAG 6

• safeguarding and administration of assets (without arranging)

• arranging safeguarding and administration of assets

• acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF38

• acting as trustee or depositary of a UK UCITS82

38403838

SUP 16.12.19A R2

SUP 16.12.20 R2

SUP 16.12.21 R2

RAG 7

• retail investment activities

• advising on P2P agreements (except when carried on exclusively with or for professional clients)67

• advising on pensions transfers & opt-outs

• arranging (bringing about deals) in retail investments

SUP 16.12.22A R89

377837

SUP 16.12.23A R78

3737

SUP 16.12.24AR78

RAG 8

• making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments

• operating a multilateral trading facility4

• operating an organised trading facility35

SUP 16.12.25AR89

80377837

SUP 16.12.26 R

SUP 16.12.27 R

RAG 9

• home finance mediation activity14

• insurance distribution activity84 (non-investment insurance contracts)

14

SUP 16.12.28A R14

SUP 16.12.28A R14

SUP 16.12.28A R14

RAG 10

• the activities of an RIE97

97

SUP 16.12.29 G2

SUP 16.12.29 G2

SUP 16.12.29 G232

32RAG 11

81

bidding in emissions auctions8781

SUP 16.12.29AR8781

SUP 16.12.29AR8781

SUP 16.12.29AR8781

47RAG 12 71

• credit-related regulated activity

SUP 16.12.29C R

SUP 16.12.29C R

SUP 16.12.29C R
SUP 16.12.22ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

89Description of data item

Firms’ prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

MIFIDPRU investment firms

Firms subject to IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Firms that are also in one or more of RAGs 2 to 6 and not subject to IPRU(INV)

Chapter 13

Solvency statement

No standard format

(note 2)

Balance sheet

FSA029

(note 3)

Section A RMAR

Income statement

FSA030

(note 3)

Section B RMAR

Capital adequacy

MIF001

(notes 3 and 6)

Section D1 RMAR (note 9)

Liquidity

MIF002 (notes 3, 4 and 6)

Metrics monitoring

MIF003

(notes 3 and 6)

Concentration risk

(non-K-CON)

MIF004

(notes 3, 5 and 6)

Concentration risk

(K-CON)

MIF005

(notes 3, 5 and 6)

Group capital test

MIF006

(notes 6 and 8)

ICARA assessment questionnaire

MIF007

(note 6)

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067

(note 10)

Professional indemnity insurance (note 11)90

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Training and competence

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

COBS data

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

Adviser charges

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Section K RMAR (note 7)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm (except a MIFIDPRU investment firm in relation to an item reported under MIFIDPRU 9) must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24R, or SUP 16 Annex 18AR in the case of the RMAR. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25, or SUP 16 Annex 18BG in the case of the RMAR.

Note 2

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or partnership. Where the firm is a partnership, this report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 3

A UK parent entity of an investment firm group to which consolidation applies under MIFIDPRU 2.5 must also submit this report on the basis of the consolidated situation.

Note 4

Does not apply to an SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm which has been granted an exemption from the liquidity requirements in MIFIDPRU 6.

Note 5

Only applicable to a non-SNI MIFIDPRU investment firm.

Note 6

Data items MIF001 – MIF007 must be reported in accordance with the rules in MIFIDPRU 9.

Note 7

This item only applies to firms that provide advice on retail investment products and P2P agreements.

Note 8

Only applicable to a parent undertaking to which the group capital test applies.

Note 9

Where a firm submits data items for both RAG 7 and RAG 9, the firm must complete Section D1.

Note 10

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

Note 11

Only applicable to firms that are subject to an FCA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance and are not MIFIDPRU investment firms.90
SUP 16.12.28ARRP

2The applicable data items, reporting frequencies and submission deadlines referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm'saccounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period.

Description of data item11

Data item11 (note 1)

Frequency

Submission deadline

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million

Balance Sheet

Section A RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Income Statement

Section B RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Capital Adequacy (note 3)58

Section D1 RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Professional indemnity insurance

(note 2)11

Section E RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly 11

11

30 business days

Threshold Conditions

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

Training and Competence

Section G RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

COBS11 data

Section H RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

Supplementary product sales data

Section I RMAR

Half yearly11

11

Annually

30 business days

Client money and client assets (note 3)58

Section C RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Annually

Annually

30 business days

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 18A. Guidance notes for the completion of the data items is set out in SUP 16 Annex 18B.

11Note 2

This item only applies to firms that may be subject to an FCA80 requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance and are not MIFIDPRU investment firms89.

68

58Note 3

This item does not apply to firms who only carry on home finance mediation activities exclusively in relation to second charge regulated mortgage contracts or legacy CCA mortgage contracts (or both)66 and who are not otherwise expected to complete it by virtue of carrying out other regulated activities.

This item also does not apply if the firm is a P2P platform operator facilitating home finance transactions and is not required to submit it by virtue of carrying out other regulated activities. 83
SUP 16.12.30RRP
(1) 2An authorised professional firm, other than one that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R,3 or one that is a CASS debt management firm or one that carries on only credit-related regulated activity as a non-mainstream regulated activity,47 must submit an annual questionnaire, contained in SUP 16 Annex 9R, unless:11(a) its only regulated activities are one or more of:(i) insurance distribution84;(ii) mortgage mediation;(iii) retail investment;(iv)
SUP 16.12.32RRP
(1) A firm that is a member of a financial conglomerate must submit financial reports to the FCA68 in accordance with the table in SUP 16.12.33 R if:9797(a) it is at the head of a financial conglomerate81; or9797(b) its Part 4A permission97 contains a relevant requirement.97(2) In (1)(b), a relevant requirement is one which:(a) applies SUP 16.12.33 R to the firm; or(b) applies SUP 16.12.33 R to the firm unless the mixed financial holding company of the financial conglomerate
SUP 16.12.33RRP

Financial reports from a member of a financial conglomerate (see SUP 16.12.32 R)

Content of Report

Form (Note 1)

Frequency

Due Date

Calculation of supplementary capital adequacy requirements in accordance with one of the three42 technical calculation methods

42

Note 2

Note 5

Yearly42

Note 5

Identification of significant risk concentration levels

Note 3

Yearly

4 months after year end

Identification of significant intra-group transactions

Note 4

Yearly

4 months after year end

Report on compliance with GENPRU 3.1.35 R where it applies

11

Note 6

Note 5

Note 5

Note 1

When giving the report required, a firm must use the form indicated, if any.

Note 2

In respect of FCA-authorised persons, if39 Part 1 of GENPRU3 Annex 1 (method80 1), or Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (method 2), or Part 3 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (method 3) applies, there is no specific form. Adequate information must be provided, specifying the calculation method used42 and each financial conglomerate for which the FCA68 is the co-ordinator must discuss with the FCA68 the form which this reporting will take and the extent to which verification by an auditor will be required.42

1168429797979742
42
42
7942424242

Note 3

Rather than specifying a standard format for each financial conglomerate to use, each financial conglomerate for which the FCA68 is the co-ordinator must discuss with the FCA68 the form of the information to be reported. This should mean that usual information management systems of the financial conglomerate can be used to the extent possible to generate and analyse the information required.

When reviewing the risk concentration levels, the FCA68 will in particular monitor the possible risk of contagion in the financial conglomerate, the risk of a conflict of interests, the risk of circumvention of sectoral rules68, and the level or volume of risks.

979797979797

Note 4

For the purposes of this reporting requirement, an intra-group transaction will be presumed to be significant if its amount exceeds 5% of the total amount of capital adequacy requirements at the level of the financial conglomerate.

Rather than specifying a standard format for each financial conglomerate to use, each financial conglomerate for which the FCA68 is the co-ordinator must11 discuss with the FCA68 the form of the information to be reported. This should mean that the68 usual information management systems of the financial conglomerate can be used to the extent possible to generate and analyse the information required.

When reviewing the intra-group transactions, the FCA68 will in particular monitor the possible risk of contagion in the financial conglomerate, the risk of a conflict of interest11, the risk of circumvention of sectoral rules, and the level or volume of risks.

97971197979797

Note 5

The frequency and due date will be as follows:

(1) banking and investment services conglomerate; frequency is yearly80 with due date 45 business days after period end;42 and68

(2) insurance conglomerate: frequency is yearly with due date four months after period end for the capital adequacy return and three months after period end for the report on compliance with GENPRU 3.1.35 R where it applies.

116811684242

Note 6

Adequate information must be added as a separate item to the relevant form for sectoral reporting.
FEES 4.2.2AGRP
64A recognised body may also have obligations to pay fees to the FCA under other rules arising from legislation other than the Act. For example a recognised body may have an obligation to pay a fee as an approved operator of a relevant system under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 1995 (SI 1995/3272).
FEES 4.2.3GRP
The FCA64 will issue invoices online5334at least 30 days before the dates on which payments fall due under FEES 4.2.1 R.6464
FEES 4.2.4ARRP
64The FCA does not specify a method of payment for a recognised body or a designated professional body.
FEES 4.2.5GRP
The FCA expects a recognised body or a designated professional body will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.
FEES 4.2.9GRP
The FCA34 will not rebate or 57 refund periodic fees if, after the start of the period to which they relate:(1) a fee payer ceases to have the status set out in column (1) of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R34; or65(2) a firm reduces its permission or payment services activities 9so that it then falls out of the fee-block previously applied to it;99(but see FEES 2.3 (Relieving Provisions) and FEES 4.3.13 R (Firms Applying to Cancel or Vary Permission Before Start of Period)).
FEES 4.2.10RRP
A person need not pay a periodic fee on the date on which it is due under the relevant provision in FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergencies) exist, and that person has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case he must pay it on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) unless FEES 4.3.6R (3), 9FEES 4.3.6R
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65

65

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC49)

25

As54 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R6554

373737

(1) Unless (2) applies54, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) If54 an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.754

77776464414141

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order32, the DRS Regulations41 or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

679

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

64

£1,15151

46314031

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs,52

during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event.51

2364

Certificate issued to person by the51FCA64 under article 4054 of the Regulated Activities Order46

64

Any manager of an AUT23;

23

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24

24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;

In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25

Not applicable

UK AIFM49 of an LTIF49

33

In relation to each LTIF49 the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33

The LTIF49 is authorised by the FCA under the LTIF Regulation49

33

Designated professional body

FEES 4 Annex 5

On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

23

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1for a UK RIE; and55

FEES 4 Annex 6R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also a RAP55

651349

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1.491166

116611661311661166

ROIE65

65

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166

1166116611661166

A listed issuer35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

33

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

A sponsor35

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

3110122323311210231

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

35Approval of a35sponsor35

141414

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

66

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

29

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements36 and transparency rules629

29Any primary information provider

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

A person is approved as a primary information provider

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6410

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

64

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

26(i) A non-UK AIFM49 which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 5949 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

(ii) non-UK AIFM49 which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK

26A small registered UK AIFM

The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4

The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.
30

[deleted]41

45A third country legal representative

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R

Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R

Not applicable

45A benchmark endorser

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R

Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R

Not applicable

50Any UK-based firm registered as a credit rating agency; a trade repository; a securitisation repository or any third country firm certified as a credit rating agency or recognised as a trade repository.

The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 16R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

53Proxy advisor

(1) £5,000

(2) For a proxy advisor which is already trading on 1 April 2020, the amount specified in (1) upon notifying the FCA.

(3) For a proxy advisor which starting trading after 1 April 2020, the fee payable is pro-rated in proportion to the months remaining in the financial year 1 April – 31 March, including the month of notification.

(1) At the time of notification

(2) For a proxy advisor which has already notified the FCA, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

CREDS 2.2.26GRP
The main reasons why a credit union should maintain adequate accounting and other records are:(1) to provide the governing body5 with adequate financial and other information to enable it to conduct its business in a prudent manner on a day-to-day basis;(2) to safeguard the assets of the credit union and the interests of members and persons too young to be members; (3) to assist officers of the credit union to fulfil their regulatory and statutory duties in relation to the preparation
CREDS 2.2.33ARRP
5A credit union must maintain information systems to enable the governing body to direct and control the credit union's business effectively, and to provide the information required by the FCA.
CREDS 2.2.67GRP
65(1) SYSC 24 says that certain SMCR firms, including a credit union, should6 allocate a number of specified management responsibilities (called FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities) to one or more of their SMF managers6. (2) SYSC 26 says that certain SMCR firms, including a credit union, should6 ensure that, at all times, one or more of their6SMF managers have overall responsibility for each of the activities, business areas and management functions of the firm.
CREDS 2.2.69GRP
(1) 5The list of FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities that a credit union should allocate is simpler than for most other SMCR firms who are PRA-authorised persons7.6(2) SYSC 24.2.6R6 sets out a list of FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities, including the ones that apply to credit unions.
CREDS 2.2.71GRP
5Under section 63E(1) of the Act, an SMCR firm6 (including a credit union) should take reasonable care to ensure that no employee of the firm performs an FCA certification function6 under an arrangement entered into by the firm in relation to the carrying on by that firm of a regulated activity, unless the employee has a valid certificate issued by that firm to perform the function to which the certificate relates. The definition of employee for these purposes goes beyond a conventional
CREDS 2.2.72GRP
5SYSC 5.2 gives details about the certification requirement described in CREDS 2.2.71G and sets out rules and guidance about it, including a list of FCA certification function6.
COBS 20.2.41BGRP
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
COBS 20.2.42RRP
A firm that is seeking to make a reattribution of its inherited estate must:(1) first discuss with the FCA7 (as part of its determination under COBS 20.2.21 R):227(a) its projections for capital required to support existing business, which must include an assessment of:2(i) the firm's future risk appetite for the with-profits fund and other relevant business; and2(ii) how much of the margin for prudence can be identified as excessive and removed from the projected capital requirements;
COBS 20.2.43GRP
The firm should include an independent element in the policyholder advocate selection process, which may include consulting representative groups of policyholders or using the services of a recruitment consultant. When considering an application for approval of a nominee to perform the policyholder advocate role, the FCA will have regard to the extent to which the firm has involved others in the selection process.
COBS 20.2.44GRP
The precise role of the policyholder advocate in any particular case will depend on the nature of the firm and the reattribution proposed. A firm will need to discuss, with a view to agreeing,2 with the FCA the precise role of the policyholder advocate in a particular case (COBS 20.2.45 R). However, the role of the policyholder advocate should include:(1) negotiating with the firm, on behalf of the relevant with-profits policyholders, the benefits to be offered to them in exchange
COBS 20.2.45RRP
A firm must:(1) notify the FCA of the terms on which it proposes to appoint a policyholder advocate (whether or not the candidate was nominated by the FCA); and(2) ensure that the terms of appointment for the policyholder advocate:(a) include a description of the role of the policyholder advocate as agreed with the FCA under COBS 20.2.44 G;2(aA) stress the independent nature of the policyholder advocate's appointment and function, and are consistent with it;2(b) define the relationship
COBS 20.2.55GRP
2For the purposes of COBS 20.2.54R (3) the FCA will have regard to, amongst other things, the factors set out in COBS 20.2.41BG (3).
COBS 20.2.61GRP
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
PERG 8.4.1GRP
The Act does not contain any definition of the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’, leaving them to their natural meaning. The ordinary dictionary entries for ‘invitation’ and ‘inducement’ offer several possible meanings to the expressions. An ‘invitation’ is capable of meanings ranging from merely asking graciously or making a request to encouraging or soliciting. The expression ‘inducement’ is given meanings ranging from merely bringing about to prevailing upon or persuading.
PERG 8.4.3GRP
The FCA recognises that the matter cannot be without doubt. However, it is the FCA view that the context in which the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’ are used clearly suggests that the purpose of section 21 is to regulate communications which have a promotional element. This is because they are used as restrictions on the making of financial promotions which are intended to have a similar effect to restrictions on advertising and unsolicited personal communications in
PERG 8.4.4GRP
The FCA considers that it is appropriate to apply an objective test to decide whether a communication is an invitation or an inducement. In the FCA's view, the essential elements of an invitation or an inducement under section 21 are that it must both have the purpose or intent of leading a person to engage in investment activity or to engage in claims management activity,8 and be promotional in nature. So it must seek, on its face, to persuade or incite the recipient to engage
PERG 8.4.6GRP
Merely asking a person if they wish to enter into an agreement with no element of persuasion or incitement will not, in the FCA's view, be an invitation under section 21. For example, the FCA does not consider an invitation to have been made where:(1) a trustee or nominee receives an offer document of some kind and asks the beneficial owner whether he wishes it to be accepted or declined;(2) a person such as a professional adviser enquires whether or not his client would be willing
PERG 8.4.8GRP
PERG 8.4.9 G to PERG 8.4.34 G apply the principles in PERG 8.4.4 G to PERG 8.4.7 G to communications made in certain circumstances. They do not seek to qualify those principles in any way. A common issue in these circumstances arises when contact details are given (for example, of a provider of investments or investment services). In the FCA's view, the inclusion of contact details should not in itself decide whether the item in which they appear is an inducement or, if so, is
PERG 8.4.15GRP
Journalism can take many forms. But typically a journalist may write an editorial piece on a listed company or about the investments or investment services that a particular firm provides or the controlled claims management activity that it carries on8. This may often be in response to a press release. The editorial may or may not contain details of or, on a website, a link to the site of the company or firm concerned. Such editorial may specifically recommend that readers should
REC 4.3.1GRP
Information is needed to support the FCA's1 risk based approach to the supervision of all regulated entities. Risk based supervision is intended to ensure that the allocation of supervisory resources and the supervisory process are compatible with the regulatory objectives and the FCA's1 general duties under the Act. The central element of the process of risk based supervision is a systematic assessment by the FCA1 (a risk assessment) of the main supervisory risks and concerns
REC 4.3.2GRP
For each UK recognised body, the FCA1 will conduct a periodic risk assessment. This assessment will take into account relevant considerations including the special position of recognised bodies under the Act, the nature of the UK recognised body's members, the position of other users of its facilities and the business environment more generally.1
REC 4.3.3GRP
The risk assessment will guide the FCA's1 supervisory focus. It is important, therefore, that there is good dialogue between the FCA1 and the recognised body. The FCA1 expects to review its risk assessment with the staff of the UK recognised body to ensure factual accuracy and a shared understanding of the key issues, and may discuss the results of the risk assessment with members of the management body2 of the UK recognised body. If appropriate, the FCA1 may send a detailed letter
CREDS 8.2.6RRP
(1) Every credit union (except a Northern Ireland credit union) 3must send to the FCA3 a copy of its audited accounts published in accordance with section 82 of the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 20143.1(2) The accounts must: (a) be made up for the period beginning with the date of the credit union's registration or with the date to which the credit union's last annual accounts were made up, whichever is the later, and ending on the credit union's most recent
CREDS 8.2.6ARRP
3The methods referred to in CREDS 8.2.6R(2)(b) are:(1) by e-mail to mutual.societies@fca.org.uk; or(2) by post to Mutuals Team, Financial Conduct Authority, 12 Endeavour Square, London, E20 1JN2.
CREDS 8.2.7RRP
Every credit union must make available, 3free of charge, to every member or person interested in the funds of the credit union who applies for it, a copy of the latest audited accounts of the credit union sent to the FCA3 under CREDS 8.2.6 R.
FIT 2.3.1GRP
In determining a person's financial soundness, the FCA1 will have regard, and a firm3 should also have regard, 1to any factors including, but not limited to:112(1) whether the person has been the subject of any judgment debt or award, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, that remains outstanding or was not satisfied within a reasonable period;(2) whether, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, the person has made any arrangements with their2 creditors, filed for bankruptcy, had a
FIT 2.3.2GRP
The FCA1will not normally require a 1candidate to supply a statement of assets or liabilities. The fact that a person may be of limited financial means will not, in itself, affect their 1suitability to perform a controlled function. The FCA would expect a firm3 to take a similar view in assessing whether staff being assessed under FIT, are fit and proper.11112
EG 2.4.1RP
1Where this poses a significant risk to the consumer protection objective or to the FCA's other regulatory objectives, unauthorised activity will be a matter of serious concern for the FCA. The FCA deals with cases of suspected unauthorised activity in a number of ways and it will not use its investigation powers and/or take enforcement action in every single instance.
EG 2.4.2RP
1The FCA's primary aim in using its investigation and enforcement powers in the context of suspected unauthorised activities is to protect the interests of consumers. The FCA's priority will be to confirm whether or not a regulated activity has been carried on in the United Kingdom by someone without authorisation or exemption, and, if so, the extent of that activity and whether other related contraventions have occurred. It will seek to assess the risk to consumers' assets and
EG 2.4.3RP
1The FCA will assess on a case-by-case basis whether to carry out a formal investigation, after considering all the available information. Factors it will take into account include: (1) the elements of the suspected contravention or breach; (2) whether the FCA considers that the persons concerned are willing to co-operate with it; (3) whether obligations of confidentiality inhibit individuals from providing information unless the FCA compels them to do so by